Quiz on DNA Scientists

This DNA History quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Scientists in DNA Structure Discovery ’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Interesting Related Quizzes
Quiz on Scientists in DNA Structure Discovery
1. In 1869, he isolated DNA with associated proteins from white blood cells and called it as "nuclein". The scientist who identified DNA for the first time as a distinct molecule is
Watson and Crick
Erwin Chargaff
Friedrich Miescher
Rosalind Franklin
2. According to him, DNA is a string of nucleotide joined through phosphate group (1919). The scientist who puts forward the structure of nucleotide is
Phoebus Levene
Frederick Griffith
Oswald Avery
Francis Crick
3. In 1863, he explained that "factors" passed on from parent to offspring is responsible for heredity. The scientist who indirectly mentioned "genes" as "factors" for the first time is
Erwin Chargaff
Friedrich Miescher
Gregor Mendel
Alfred Hershey
4. In 1928, he observed that "transforming factor" is responsible for the virulence of non-virulent live bacteria. This experiment was conducted by
Frederick Griffith
Erwin Chargaff
Gregor Mendel
Martha Chase
5. In 1944, they found out that the "transforming factor" is DNA. This experiment that proved DNA as the genetic material was conducted by
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
James Watson and Francis Crick
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
6. Who used the term "nucleic acid" for the first time in 1899?
Friedrich Miescher
Avery
Altmann
Erwin Chargaff
7. The experiment using T2 phage in 1952 further confirmed that the DNA is the genetic material. Bacteriophage experiment was carried out by
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
James Watson and Francis Crick
Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
Lederberg and Tatum
8. In 1950, he found out that the purines and pyrimidines are always in equal amounts. This key observation in elucidating DNA structure was made by
Francis Crick
Frederick Griffith
Erwin Chargaff
Maurice Wilkins
9. Who is the unsung hero whose X-ray diffraction pictures of DNA actually helped in the discovery of DNA structure is?
Maurice Wilkins
Rosalind Franklin
Erwin Chargaff
Linus Pauling
10. In 1953, the double helix structure of DNA was proposed and later in 1962 Nobel Prize were awarded to
James Watson and Francis Crick
James Watson, Francis Crick and Chargaff
James Watson,Francis Crick, Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
James Watson,Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins
Score =
Correct answers:

This DNA History quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Scientists in DNA Structure Discovery ’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Interesting Related Quizzes
Quiz on Scientists in DNA Structure Discovery
1. In 1869, he isolated DNA with associated proteins from white blood cells and called it as "nuclein". The scientist who identified DNA for the first time as a distinct molecule is
Watson and Crick
Erwin Chargaff
Friedrich Miescher
Rosalind Franklin
2. According to him, DNA is a string of nucleotide joined through phosphate group (1919). The scientist who puts forward the structure of nucleotide is
Phoebus Levene
Frederick Griffith
Oswald Avery
Francis Crick
3. In 1863, he explained that "factors" passed on from parent to offspring is responsible for heredity. The scientist who indirectly mentioned "genes" as "factors" for the first time is
Erwin Chargaff
Friedrich Miescher
Gregor Mendel
Alfred Hershey
4. In 1928, he observed that "transforming factor" is responsible for the virulence of non-virulent live bacteria. This experiment was conducted by
Frederick Griffith
Erwin Chargaff
Gregor Mendel
Martha Chase
5. In 1944, they found out that the "transforming factor" is DNA. This experiment that proved DNA as the genetic material was conducted by
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
James Watson and Francis Crick
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
6. Who used the term "nucleic acid" for the first time in 1899?
Friedrich Miescher
Avery
Altmann
Erwin Chargaff
7. The experiment using T2 phage in 1952 further confirmed that the DNA is the genetic material. Bacteriophage experiment was carried out by
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
James Watson and Francis Crick
Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
Lederberg and Tatum
8. In 1950, he found out that the purines and pyrimidines are always in equal amounts. This key observation in elucidating DNA structure was made by
Francis Crick
Frederick Griffith
Erwin Chargaff
Maurice Wilkins
9. Who is the unsung hero whose X-ray diffraction pictures of DNA actually helped in the discovery of DNA structure is?
Maurice Wilkins
Rosalind Franklin
Erwin Chargaff
Linus Pauling
10. In 1953, the double helix structure of DNA was proposed and later in 1962 Nobel Prize were awarded to
James Watson and Francis Crick
James Watson, Francis Crick and Chargaff
James Watson,Francis Crick, Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
James Watson,Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins
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Quiz on Plant Transport

This multiple choice quiz on plant transport is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘plant transport’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Plant transport mcq

1. Phloem is associated with transport of
water
minerals
photosynthates
all of these
2. Water transport in plants occur through
collenchyma
parenchyma
phloem
xylem
3. Translocation of organic solutes occur in
downward movement
upward movement
radial movement
all of these
4. According to Transpiration pull theory, which are the major factors responsible for ascent of sap through xylem?
turgor pressure and osmosis
cohesion, adhesion and transpiration pull
Transpiration pull and root pressure
cohesion, adhesion and osmosis
5. All the following are objections against root pressure theory of ascent of sap except
guttation and bleeding
ascent of sap in unrooted plants
Absence of root pressure in conifer trees
low absorption in detopped plants than plants with leaves on top
6. The movement of water through cell wall and inter cellular spaces during radial transport from root hair to root xylem through root cortex is called
vacoular pathway
ascent of sap
apoplastic pathway
symplastic pathway
7. Movement of solutes through phloem is always from
sugar sink to source
sugar source to sink
leaf to phloem
leaf to xylem through sieve tubes
8. Which is the most abundant solute in phloem sap?
sucrose
glucose
starch
amylose
9. The transfer of sugar from leaf mesophyll to sieve elements of phloem is called
osmosis
phloem loading
phloem unloading
sink loading
10. According to Pressure flow hypothesis, the major force responsible for mass transfer of solute from source to sink is
diffusion
hydrostatic pressure gradient
water potential in source
water potential in sink
Score =
Correct answers:
This multiple choice quiz on plant transport is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘plant transport’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Plant transport mcq

1. Phloem is associated with transport of
water
minerals
photosynthates
all of these
2. Water transport in plants occur through
collenchyma
parenchyma
phloem
xylem
3. Translocation of organic solutes occur in
downward movement
upward movement
radial movement
all of these
4. According to Transpiration pull theory, which are the major factors responsible for ascent of sap through xylem?
turgor pressure and osmosis
cohesion, adhesion and transpiration pull
Transpiration pull and root pressure
cohesion, adhesion and osmosis
5. All the following are objections against root pressure theory of ascent of sap except
guttation and bleeding
ascent of sap in unrooted plants
Absence of root pressure in conifer trees
low absorption in detopped plants than plants with leaves on top
6. The movement of water through cell wall and inter cellular spaces during radial transport from root hair to root xylem through root cortex is called
vacoular pathway
ascent of sap
apoplastic pathway
symplastic pathway
7. Movement of solutes through phloem is always from
sugar sink to source
sugar source to sink
leaf to phloem
leaf to xylem through sieve tubes
8. Which is the most abundant solute in phloem sap?
sucrose
glucose
starch
amylose
9. The transfer of sugar from leaf mesophyll to sieve elements of phloem is called
osmosis
phloem loading
phloem unloading
sink loading
10. According to Pressure flow hypothesis, the major force responsible for mass transfer of solute from source to sink is
diffusion
hydrostatic pressure gradient
water potential in source
water potential in sink
Score =
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Quiz on Scientific Method

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘scientific method’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Scientific method

1. Scientific method is a systematized and organized way of gathering knowledge through an orderly process of
in depth analysis -interpretation-generalization and theorizing-hypothesis formulation
observation-experimentation-framing of hypothesis-theorizing-interpretation
observation- experimentation-interpretation-generalization
observation-framing of hypothesis-experimentation-interpretation-theorizing
2. Scientific method starts with
careful observation
framing hypothesis
review of literature
inductive reasoning
3. The detailed study of available data on the topic selected is called
review of literature
peer review
blind review
scientific evidence
4. Formulating a hypothesis refers to
an educated guess based on experience
the possible answer based on experience
an educated guess that can be tested scientifically
a predictive statement for conducting an experiment
5. In majority of experiments, the validity of hypothesis is tested by comparing experimental results with control. Controlled experiment refers to setting up a control or a
a treatment in non experimental natural condition
a treatment in experimental natural condition
a treatment in non experimental testing condition
a treatment in experimental artificial condition
6. Which of the statement is correct regarding theory and law?
theory is universally accepted capable of making true predictions
Law is universally accepted capable of making true predictions
Theory has more authenticity than law
Generally Laws are subjected to revision and rejection
7. Formulation of the theory of gravitation by Issac Newton (apple story) is an example of
willful invention
serendipity
scientific evidnece
zemblanity
8. Which of the hypothesis is stated first with an objective to avoid personal bias of the investigator in collecting data?
null hypothesis
alternative hypothesis
ad hoc hypothesis
auxillary hypothesis
9. The variable that the researcher changes in an experiment is called
dependent variable
independent variable
controlled variable
uncontrolled variable
10. The expert scrutiny of result of a scientific paper before publishing is called
review of literature
self review
expert review
peer review
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘scientific method’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Scientific method

1. Scientific method is a systematized and organized way of gathering knowledge through an orderly process of
in depth analysis -interpretation-generalization and theorizing-hypothesis formulation
observation-experimentation-framing of hypothesis-theorizing-interpretation
observation- experimentation-interpretation-generalization
observation-framing of hypothesis-experimentation-interpretation-theorizing
2. Scientific method starts with
careful observation
framing hypothesis
review of literature
inductive reasoning
3. The detailed study of available data on the topic selected is called
review of literature
peer review
blind review
scientific evidence
4. Formulating a hypothesis refers to
an educated guess based on experience
the possible answer based on experience
an educated guess that can be tested scientifically
a predictive statement for conducting an experiment
5. In majority of experiments, the validity of hypothesis is tested by comparing experimental results with control. Controlled experiment refers to setting up a control or a
a treatment in non experimental natural condition
a treatment in experimental natural condition
a treatment in non experimental testing condition
a treatment in experimental artificial condition
6. Which of the statement is correct regarding theory and law?
theory is universally accepted capable of making true predictions
Law is universally accepted capable of making true predictions
Theory has more authenticity than law
Generally Laws are subjected to revision and rejection
7. Formulation of the theory of gravitation by Issac Newton (apple story) is an example of
willful invention
serendipity
scientific evidnece
zemblanity
8. Which of the hypothesis is stated first with an objective to avoid personal bias of the investigator in collecting data?
null hypothesis
alternative hypothesis
ad hoc hypothesis
auxillary hypothesis
9. The variable that the researcher changes in an experiment is called
dependent variable
independent variable
controlled variable
uncontrolled variable
10. The expert scrutiny of result of a scientific paper before publishing is called
review of literature
self review
expert review
peer review
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Human Genetics

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Human Genetics’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Human Genetics
1. Which of the following cannot be deleted in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
Down's syndrome
Jaundice
Klinefelter's syndrome
Sex of the foetus
2. Select the incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia.
It is a dominant disease
A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
It is a sex linked disease
it is a recessive disase
3. Down's syndrome in humans is due to
three X chromososme
three copies of chromosome 21
monosomy
two Y chromosomes
4. XO chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
Turner's syndrome
Down's syndome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Edward's syndrome
5. Gynaecomastia is the symptom of
Kinefelter's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
cri-du-chat syndrome
6. Which one is the incorrect statement with regard to the importance of pedigree analysis?>
It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
it confirms that the triat is linked to one of the autosome
it helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
7. Albinism is due to deficiency of
tyrosinase
amylase
acetyl cholinesterase
carbonic anhydrase
8. Which of the following chromosomal constitution refers to Jacob's syndrome in human?
44+XO
44+XXY
44+XYY
45+XYY
9. Which following pair of diseases is caused by two genes located on human X chromosome?
colour blindness and phenylketonuria
colour blindness and haemophilia
colour blindness and hypertrichosis
colour blindness and albinism
10. The hereditary disease in which the urine of a person turns black on exposure to the presence of homogenetistic acid is known as
ketonuria
haematuria
phenylketonuria
alkaptonuria
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Human Genetics’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Human Genetics
1. Which of the following cannot be deleted in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
Down's syndrome
Jaundice
Klinefelter's syndrome
Sex of the foetus
2. Select the incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia.
It is a dominant disease
A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
It is a sex linked disease
it is a recessive disase
3. Down's syndrome in humans is due to
three X chromososme
three copies of chromosome 21
monosomy
two Y chromosomes
4. XO chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
Turner's syndrome
Down's syndome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Edward's syndrome
5. Gynaecomastia is the symptom of
Kinefelter's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
cri-du-chat syndrome
6. Which one is the incorrect statement with regard to the importance of pedigree analysis?>
It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
it confirms that the triat is linked to one of the autosome
it helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
7. Albinism is due to deficiency of
tyrosinase
amylase
acetyl cholinesterase
carbonic anhydrase
8. Which of the following chromosomal constitution refers to Jacob's syndrome in human?
44+XO
44+XXY
44+XYY
45+XYY
9. Which following pair of diseases is caused by two genes located on human X chromosome?
colour blindness and phenylketonuria
colour blindness and haemophilia
colour blindness and hypertrichosis
colour blindness and albinism
10. The hereditary disease in which the urine of a person turns black on exposure to the presence of homogenetistic acid is known as
ketonuria
haematuria
phenylketonuria
alkaptonuria
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Plant Growth Regulators

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Plant growth regulators’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Plant Growth Regulators

1. Phytohormones
hormones regulating flowering
hormones regulating secondary growth
hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
groth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process
2. The phytohormone which induces triple response is
IAA
ABA
GA3
C2H4
3. Gibberellic acid induces flower
in short day plants under short day conditions
in some gymnospermic plants only
in day neutral plants under dark conditions
in long day plants under short day conditions
4. Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber
ABA
IAA
Zeatin
Gibberellin
5. Ripening of banana is accompanied with
sudden rise in cytokinin
sudden rise in auxin
sudden rise in ethylene
sudden rise in gibberellin
6. Auxin is synthesized in which part of the plant?
apical
nodal
internodal
axillary
7. Coconut milk stimulates cell division as it is a rich source of
auxin
gibberellin
cytokinin
ethylene
8. The most abundant occurring plant hormone is
cytokinin
ABA
IBA
Indole 3 acetic acid
9. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
adenine derivative -kinetin
terpenes -IAA
gas-ethylene
indole compounds-IBA
10. Parthenocarpic development of fruit is brought about by
NAA, 2 T
2,4-D
NAA, 2,4-D
2,4, 5-T
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Plant growth regulators’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Plant Growth Regulators

1. Phytohormones
hormones regulating flowering
hormones regulating secondary growth
hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood
groth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process
2. The phytohormone which induces triple response is
IAA
ABA
GA3
C2H4
3. Gibberellic acid induces flower
in short day plants under short day conditions
in some gymnospermic plants only
in day neutral plants under dark conditions
in long day plants under short day conditions
4. Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber
ABA
IAA
Zeatin
Gibberellin
5. Ripening of banana is accompanied with
sudden rise in cytokinin
sudden rise in auxin
sudden rise in ethylene
sudden rise in gibberellin
6. Auxin is synthesized in which part of the plant?
apical
nodal
internodal
axillary
7. Coconut milk stimulates cell division as it is a rich source of
auxin
gibberellin
cytokinin
ethylene
8. The most abundant occurring plant hormone is
cytokinin
ABA
IBA
Indole 3 acetic acid
9. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
adenine derivative -kinetin
terpenes -IAA
gas-ethylene
indole compounds-IBA
10. Parthenocarpic development of fruit is brought about by
NAA, 2 T
2,4-D
NAA, 2,4-D
2,4, 5-T
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Light Independent Reaction - Calvin Cycle


1. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of glucose in C3 cycle?
18 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADH
18 ATP and 12 NADH
2. The initial CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle is
Phosphoeneolpyruvate
RuBP
phosphoglycolate
citrtic acid
3. Calvin cycle is involved in the
synthesis of glucose
synthesis of NADPH
synthesis of ATP
hydrolysis of water
4. How many molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate is synthesized from the reaction between 6 CO2 and 6 RuBp
3
6
12
18
5. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are used in the reduction phase to convert 3-phosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
6 ATP and 6 NADPH
6 ATP only
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 NADPH only
6. How many glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is required to synthesize one glucose molecule?
2
3
6
12
7. The enzyme involved in CO2 fixation of C3 cycle is
RuBisO
RuBisCo
PEP carboxylase
Phosphoglycerokinase
8. C3 cycle involves all the steps except
Reduction
CO2 fixation
ATP synthesis
Regeneration of RuBp
9. The site of light independent reaction of photosynthesis is
Thylakoid membrane
Thylakoid lumen
Stroma
Grana
10. How many ATP and NADPH is used for the regeneration of 6RuBp molecules?
12 ATP and 6 NADPH
12 ATP only
6ATP and 6 NADPH
6 ATP only
Score =
Correct answers:

1. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to synthesize one molecule of glucose in C3 cycle?
18 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADH
18 ATP and 12 NADH
2. The initial CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle is
Phosphoeneolpyruvate
RuBP
phosphoglycolate
citrtic acid
3. Calvin cycle is involved in the
synthesis of glucose
synthesis of NADPH
synthesis of ATP
hydrolysis of water
4. How many molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate is synthesized from the reaction between 6 CO2 and 6 RuBp
3
6
12
18
5. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are used in the reduction phase to convert 3-phosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
6 ATP and 6 NADPH
6 ATP only
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 NADPH only
6. How many glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is required to synthesize one glucose molecule?
2
3
6
12
7. The enzyme involved in CO2 fixation of C3 cycle is
RuBisO
RuBisCo
PEP carboxylase
Phosphoglycerokinase
8. C3 cycle involves all the steps except
Reduction
CO2 fixation
ATP synthesis
Regeneration of RuBp
9. The site of light independent reaction of photosynthesis is
Thylakoid membrane
Thylakoid lumen
Stroma
Grana
10. How many ATP and NADPH is used for the regeneration of 6RuBp molecules?
12 ATP and 6 NADPH
12 ATP only
6ATP and 6 NADPH
6 ATP only
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering


1. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
Nitrosomas and Klebsiella
Rhizobium and Diplococcus

2. Crown gall disease in plants is caused by
Ti plamid
Pi plasmid
virus
bacteria

3. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in
pest resistance
alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
high lysine content
insect resistance

4. Gel electrophoresis is used for
isolation of DNA molecules
cutting of DNA into fragments
separation of DNA fragments according to their size
construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

5. Which of these are most widely used in genetic engineering?
plastid
plasmid
mitochondria
ribosome

6. New strain of bacteria which is used in chewing up oil spoilage is
Escherichia coli
Bacillus subtilis
Salmonella typhimurium
Pseudomonas putida

7. Cryopreservation of seeds is done at:
0 oC
-10 oC
-196 oC
-25 oC

8. Electroporation involves
promotion of seed germination by induced imbibition of water with electric current
passage of sucrose through sieve pores by electroosmosis
purification of saline water with the help of an artificial membrane
making transient pores in cell membrane to facilitate entry of gene constructs

9. Known sequence of DNA that is used to find complementary DNA strands, is
DNA probe
vector
recombinant DNA
plasmid

10. Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in
DNA finger printing
stem cell culture
recombinant DNA technology
monoclonal antibody production

Score =
Correct answers:


1. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
Nitrosomas and Klebsiella
Rhizobium and Diplococcus

2. Crown gall disease in plants is caused by
Ti plamid
Pi plasmid
virus
bacteria

3. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in
pest resistance
alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
high lysine content
insect resistance

4. Gel electrophoresis is used for
isolation of DNA molecules
cutting of DNA into fragments
separation of DNA fragments according to their size
construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

5. Which of these are most widely used in genetic engineering?
plastid
plasmid
mitochondria
ribosome

6. New strain of bacteria which is used in chewing up oil spoilage is
Escherichia coli
Bacillus subtilis
Salmonella typhimurium
Pseudomonas putida

7. Cryopreservation of seeds is done at:
0 oC
-10 oC
-196 oC
-25 oC

8. Electroporation involves
promotion of seed germination by induced imbibition of water with electric current
passage of sucrose through sieve pores by electroosmosis
purification of saline water with the help of an artificial membrane
making transient pores in cell membrane to facilitate entry of gene constructs

9. Known sequence of DNA that is used to find complementary DNA strands, is
DNA probe
vector
recombinant DNA
plasmid

10. Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in
DNA finger printing
stem cell culture
recombinant DNA technology
monoclonal antibody production

Score =
Correct answers:

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Quiz on Pesticides and Biofertilizers

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Pesticides an Biofertilizers’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. 2,4-D is an effective
weedicide
rodenticide
fungicide
weedicide
2. The biofertilizers are
Anabaena and Azolla
quick growing crop ploughed under soil
cow dung, manure and farmyard waste
all of these
3. Which aquatic fern is used to increase the yield in paddy crop?
Marsilea
Azolla
Salvinia
All of these
4. Bordeaux mixture was discovered by
Watson
Millardet
Harrison
Khorana
5. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers?
Rhizobium and grasses
Azolla and BGA
nostoc and Legume
Salmonella and E.coli
6. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
aldrin
BHC
Endosulphan
Malathion
7. The thurioside is a proteinaceous toxin, which is obtained from
green manure
bacterial origin
biofertilizers
farmyard manure
8. What is agent orange?
Colour used in fluorescent lamps
a weedicide containing dioxin
A biodegradable inseecticide
hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
9. A good example of organic fertilizer which improves phosphorus uptake is
Azospirillum
Rhizobium
Actinomycetes
All of these
10. Pyrethrin is obtained from
Carthamus
Azadirachta
Amaranthus
Chrysanthemum
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Pesticides an Biofertilizers’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. 2,4-D is an effective
weedicide
rodenticide
fungicide
weedicide
2. The biofertilizers are
Anabaena and Azolla
quick growing crop ploughed under soil
cow dung, manure and farmyard waste
all of these
3. Which aquatic fern is used to increase the yield in paddy crop?
Marsilea
Azolla
Salvinia
All of these
4. Bordeaux mixture was discovered by
Watson
Millardet
Harrison
Khorana
5. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers?
Rhizobium and grasses
Azolla and BGA
nostoc and Legume
Salmonella and E.coli
6. Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
aldrin
BHC
Endosulphan
Malathion
7. The thurioside is a proteinaceous toxin, which is obtained from
green manure
bacterial origin
biofertilizers
farmyard manure
8. What is agent orange?
Colour used in fluorescent lamps
a weedicide containing dioxin
A biodegradable inseecticide
hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
9. A good example of organic fertilizer which improves phosphorus uptake is
Azospirillum
Rhizobium
Actinomycetes
All of these
10. Pyrethrin is obtained from
Carthamus
Azadirachta
Amaranthus
Chrysanthemum
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Quiz on Light Dependent Reaction of Photosynthesis


1. In light dependent reaction of photosynthesis, light energy is converted to
Heat energy
ATP and NADH
ATP and NADPH
ATP
2. Which is the site of light reaction of photosynthesis?
Chloroplast
mitochondrion
stroma
thylakoid membrane
3. Light reaction does not produce
NADPH
ATP
Glucose
protons
4. Which of the pigment molecule usually acts as a reaction center?
Chlorophyll a
Chlorophyll b
Carotenoids
Both a and b
5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the location of Photosystems?
PSI and PSII are uniformly distributed in thylakoids
PSI in appressed region of grana thylakoids and PSII in non-appressed region
PSI and PSII in non-appressed regions
PSI in non-appressed region of grana thylakoids and PSII in appressed region
6. The F1 particle of ATP synthase is oriented towards
stroma
lumen
thylakoid membrane
stroma lamella
7. Photolysis of water is involved in
filling electron gap in PSII
creating electrochemical gradient
filling electron gap in PSI
both a and b
8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
Only ATP is produced
Predominant in bacteria
No photolysis of water
All of these
9. The reactions of non cyclic photophosphorylation is called as
J scheme
S scheme
K scheme
Z scheme
10. Herbicide Diuron inhibits the flow of electrons from
QA to QB
P680-phaeophytin
FeS-Fd
Cyt F-PC
Score =
Correct answers:

1. In light dependent reaction of photosynthesis, light energy is converted to
Heat energy
ATP and NADH
ATP and NADPH
ATP
2. Which is the site of light reaction of photosynthesis?
Chloroplast
mitochondrion
stroma
thylakoid membrane
3. Light reaction does not produce
NADPH
ATP
Glucose
protons
4. Which of the pigment molecule usually acts as a reaction center?
Chlorophyll a
Chlorophyll b
Carotenoids
Both a and b
5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the location of Photosystems?
PSI and PSII are uniformly distributed in thylakoids
PSI in appressed region of grana thylakoids and PSII in non-appressed region
PSI and PSII in non-appressed regions
PSI in non-appressed region of grana thylakoids and PSII in appressed region
6. The F1 particle of ATP synthase is oriented towards
stroma
lumen
thylakoid membrane
stroma lamella
7. Photolysis of water is involved in
filling electron gap in PSII
creating electrochemical gradient
filling electron gap in PSI
both a and b
8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
Only ATP is produced
Predominant in bacteria
No photolysis of water
All of these
9. The reactions of non cyclic photophosphorylation is called as
J scheme
S scheme
K scheme
Z scheme
10. Herbicide Diuron inhibits the flow of electrons from
QA to QB
P680-phaeophytin
FeS-Fd
Cyt F-PC
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis

Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis

1. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation,water splitting refills 'electron hole' in PS II and the site of water splitting is
stroma
grana
thylakoid membrane
thylakoid lumen
chloroplast membrane
2. During respiration,incomplete breakdown of C6H12O6 into 2 pyruvate molecules occurs in
cristae
cytosol
outer mitochondrial membrane
inner mitochondrial membrane
mitochondrial matrix
3. All the following statements on C4 plants are true except
C3 cycle is present in C4 plants
RuBP is the initial CO2 acceptor
photorespiration is negligible in C4 plants
CO2 fixation occurs at two sites
The first product formed is Oxaloacetic acid
4. The number of NADH molecules produced per glucose molecule in Krebs cycle is
8
6
4
2
1
5. Which of the following process in cellular respiration is independent of oxygen concentration?
Oxidative phosphorylation
electron transport chain
Krebs cycle
Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Chemiosmosis
6. The proton channel; cytochrome b6 f complex of photosynthesis is analogous to respiratory complex
cytochrome bc1
cytochrome c oxidase
NADH-CoQ reductase
succinate dehydrogenase
ATP synthase
7. During respiration,the energy released during electron flow is used to pump H+ into
mitochondrial matrix
cristae
mitochondrial outer membrane
mitochondrial intermembrane space
cytoplasm
8. During photosynthesis,the energy released during electron flow is used to pump H+ into
thylakoid membrane
thylakoid space
grana
stroma
chloroplast inner membrane
9. During respiration, Water is formed at the end of electron transport chain.What is the source of oxygen for the synthesis of water?
C6H12O6 (glucose)
CO2
Molecular O2
lactic acid (C3H6O3)
pyruvic acid (C3H4O3)
10. Light reaction of photosynthesis converts light energy to chemical energy in the form of
ATP
NADH
NADPH
Both A and B
Both A and C
Score =
Correct answers:
Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis

1. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation,water splitting refills 'electron hole' in PS II and the site of water splitting is
stroma
grana
thylakoid membrane
thylakoid lumen
chloroplast membrane
2. During respiration,incomplete breakdown of C6H12O6 into 2 pyruvate molecules occurs in
cristae
cytosol
outer mitochondrial membrane
inner mitochondrial membrane
mitochondrial matrix
3. All the following statements on C4 plants are true except
C3 cycle is present in C4 plants
RuBP is the initial CO2 acceptor
photorespiration is negligible in C4 plants
CO2 fixation occurs at two sites
The first product formed is Oxaloacetic acid
4. The number of NADH molecules produced per glucose molecule in Krebs cycle is
8
6
4
2
1
5. Which of the following process in cellular respiration is independent of oxygen concentration?
Oxidative phosphorylation
electron transport chain
Krebs cycle
Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Chemiosmosis
6. The proton channel; cytochrome b6 f complex of photosynthesis is analogous to respiratory complex
cytochrome bc1
cytochrome c oxidase
NADH-CoQ reductase
succinate dehydrogenase
ATP synthase
7. During respiration,the energy released during electron flow is used to pump H+ into
mitochondrial matrix
cristae
mitochondrial outer membrane
mitochondrial intermembrane space
cytoplasm
8. During photosynthesis,the energy released during electron flow is used to pump H+ into
thylakoid membrane
thylakoid space
grana
stroma
chloroplast inner membrane
9. During respiration, Water is formed at the end of electron transport chain.What is the source of oxygen for the synthesis of water?
C6H12O6 (glucose)
CO2
Molecular O2
lactic acid (C3H6O3)
pyruvic acid (C3H4O3)
10. Light reaction of photosynthesis converts light energy to chemical energy in the form of
ATP
NADH
NADPH
Both A and B
Both A and C
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Quiz on Horticulture

This agriculture quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘horticulture’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The practice of complete removal of trunk of a tree leaving a stump alone is called
thinning out
dehorning
coppicing
heading back
2. The system of planting which accomadates 15 % more plants than that in square system
triangular system
rectangular
hexagonal
quincunx system
3. Blanching of vegetables is done mainly to
remove tissue gas
fix colour
inactivate bacteria
inactivate enzymes
4. Which of the following indoor is poisonous?
Dracena
Cordyline
Chlorophytum
Diffenbachia
5. Technique that control shape, size and direction of plant growth as
Topiary
Thinning
Dis budding
Training
6. Based on agronomic classification Glyricidia comes under
fodders
fibre crops
green manure
spices
7. The art of training plants to different shapes is known as
Topiary
Trophy
Pergola
Moribana
8. Plastic mulches are used in vegetable production for
moisture conservation
disease control
weed control
all of these
9. Golden revolution is related to the production of
Pulse
oil seeds
fish
horticulture
10. The best method to propagate a good quality jack fruit tree is
layering
approach grafting
tongue grafting
seed propagation
Score =
Correct answers:
This agriculture quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘horticulture’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The practice of complete removal of trunk of a tree leaving a stump alone is called
thinning out
dehorning
coppicing
heading back
2. The system of planting which accomadates 15 % more plants than that in square system
triangular system
rectangular
hexagonal
quincunx system
3. Blanching of vegetables is done mainly to
remove tissue gas
fix colour
inactivate bacteria
inactivate enzymes
4. Which of the following indoor is poisonous?
Dracena
Cordyline
Chlorophytum
Diffenbachia
5. Technique that control shape, size and direction of plant growth as
Topiary
Thinning
Dis budding
Training
6. Based on agronomic classification Glyricidia comes under
fodders
fibre crops
green manure
spices
7. The art of training plants to different shapes is known as
Topiary
Trophy
Pergola
Moribana
8. Plastic mulches are used in vegetable production for
moisture conservation
disease control
weed control
all of these
9. Golden revolution is related to the production of
Pulse
oil seeds
fish
horticulture
10. The best method to propagate a good quality jack fruit tree is
layering
approach grafting
tongue grafting
seed propagation
Score =
Correct answers:
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Immunology Multiple Choice Quiz on Antibodies

This immunology quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘Antibodies’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The basic unit of immunoglobulin (Ig) is composed of:
Two identical heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two identical light chains
Two identical heavy and two identical light chains
2. IgE
is present in high concentration in serum
is bound together by J chain
bind to mast cells through its Fab region
differ from IgG antibody because of its different H chains
3. The Fab portions of Ig
contains the J chain
mediates biological effector functions of Ab molecules
binds to an Fc receptor
contains the idiotype of the Ig
4. Ig heavy chains are
not glycosylated
not important to binding of antigen
expressed by T cells
encoded by a constant region exon, variable exon, diversity exon and joining exon
5. IgA
crosses the placenta
is involved in hay fever
is present in saliva and milk
activates complement by the classical pathway
6. Human IgM
is largely restricted to the circulation
is the antibody produced by high affinity plasma cells
protects mucosal surfaces
crosses the placenta
7. The Fc region of antibody
generally confers biological activity on the various molecules
contains both heavy and light chains
is not important for triggering of IgE mediated hypersensitivity
is not a requirement for placental transmission
8. The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for:
C1q fixation
Binding to macrophages
Binding to antigen
Binding to Fc receptors
9. Cells destined to become IgA producing plasma cells do not
produce J Chain
produce secretory component
home to any mucosal area
migrate from mucosal areas on stimulation with antigen
10. Cleavage of IgG by Papain produces
F(ab')2
Fab
Isolated heavy chains
Isolated light chains
Score =
Correct answers:
This immunology quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘Antibodies’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The basic unit of immunoglobulin (Ig) is composed of:
Two identical heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two identical light chains
Two identical heavy and two identical light chains
2. IgE
is present in high concentration in serum
is bound together by J chain
bind to mast cells through its Fab region
differ from IgG antibody because of its different H chains
3. The Fab portions of Ig
contains the J chain
mediates biological effector functions of Ab molecules
binds to an Fc receptor
contains the idiotype of the Ig
4. Ig heavy chains are
not glycosylated
not important to binding of antigen
expressed by T cells
encoded by a constant region exon, variable exon, diversity exon and joining exon
5. IgA
crosses the placenta
is involved in hay fever
is present in saliva and milk
activates complement by the classical pathway
6. Human IgM
is largely restricted to the circulation
is the antibody produced by high affinity plasma cells
protects mucosal surfaces
crosses the placenta
7. The Fc region of antibody
generally confers biological activity on the various molecules
contains both heavy and light chains
is not important for triggering of IgE mediated hypersensitivity
is not a requirement for placental transmission
8. The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for:
C1q fixation
Binding to macrophages
Binding to antigen
Binding to Fc receptors
9. Cells destined to become IgA producing plasma cells do not
produce J Chain
produce secretory component
home to any mucosal area
migrate from mucosal areas on stimulation with antigen
10. Cleavage of IgG by Papain produces
F(ab')2
Fab
Isolated heavy chains
Isolated light chains
Score =
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Immunology Quiz on Innate Immunity

This immunology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Innate immunity'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Innate Immunity

1. Innate immunity
These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of any infection.
All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is correct about Macrophages
produce nitric oxide
are main immune cells for dealing with viruses
circulate in blood stream
are first lecukocytes to arrive at the site of a skin infection
3. Molecule directly involved in NK cell mediated killing include
complement
superoxide
granzyme A and B
None of these
4. Tears contain
IgG
IgA
Lysozyme
all of these
5. Dendritic cells are characterized by
their ability to release histamine
their interface between the innate and adaptive immune systems
expression of CD3
expression of IgM molecules
6. Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
inflammation
mucous membrane
skin
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
7. Opsonins include
magainins
C9
IFNgamma
C3b
8. Phagocytosis
is important in bacterial infections
is a process that does not involve energy
is carried by cells of the adaptive immune system
results in division of the cell
9. Both basophils and mast cells
release histamine
are found primarily in lymph nodes
circulate in blood stream
are phagocytic
10. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) include which of the following?
Unmethylated CpG sequences
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Lectin like molecules
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
Score =
Correct answers:
This immunology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Innate immunity'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Innate Immunity

1. Innate immunity
These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of any infection.
All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is correct about Macrophages
produce nitric oxide
are main immune cells for dealing with viruses
circulate in blood stream
are first lecukocytes to arrive at the site of a skin infection
3. Molecule directly involved in NK cell mediated killing include
complement
superoxide
granzyme A and B
None of these
4. Tears contain
IgG
IgA
Lysozyme
all of these
5. Dendritic cells are characterized by
their ability to release histamine
their interface between the innate and adaptive immune systems
expression of CD3
expression of IgM molecules
6. Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
inflammation
mucous membrane
skin
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
7. Opsonins include
magainins
C9
IFNgamma
C3b
8. Phagocytosis
is important in bacterial infections
is a process that does not involve energy
is carried by cells of the adaptive immune system
results in division of the cell
9. Both basophils and mast cells
release histamine
are found primarily in lymph nodes
circulate in blood stream
are phagocytic
10. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) include which of the following?
Unmethylated CpG sequences
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Lectin like molecules
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
Score =
Correct answers:
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Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biodiversity and Conservation’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

1. Species with limited distribution in a particular geographical area is referred as
endangered
vulnerable
endemic
threatened
2. The term biodiversity hotspot was coined by
Norman Myers
Ernst Mayr
Ernst haeckel
Walter Mayr
3. A keystone species is one that
is vulnerable to extinction
is with restricted geographic distribution
strongly influences the structure and function of an ecological community
all of these
4. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, the most important criteria include
high biodiversity
high degree of endemism
threatened
both b and c
5. Ginkgo biloba is an example for
continental endemics
endemic species
relic endemism
regional endemism
6. Which of the following is the most important cause for the loss of biodiversity?
habitat destruction
Introduction of Exotic species
Environmental pollution
Urbanization and industrialization
7. Which of the following is an examples of endangered species?
Sambar
Desert fox
Spotted deer
Asiatic Lion
8. Species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause is called
Keystone species
Sibling species
Flagship species
Pioneer species
9. Species that are selected for conservation because the conservation and protection of these species indirectly affects the conservation and protection of other species within their ecosystem is referred as
Umbrella species
Pioneer species
keystone species
Iconic species
10. Species or group of species chosen as an indicator for the state of an ecosystem is called
priority species
Indicator species
Signal species
Point species
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biodiversity and Conservation’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

1. Species with limited distribution in a particular geographical area is referred as
endangered
vulnerable
endemic
threatened
2. The term biodiversity hotspot was coined by
Norman Myers
Ernst Mayr
Ernst haeckel
Walter Mayr
3. A keystone species is one that
is vulnerable to extinction
is with restricted geographic distribution
strongly influences the structure and function of an ecological community
all of these
4. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, the most important criteria include
high biodiversity
high degree of endemism
threatened
both b and c
5. Ginkgo biloba is an example for
continental endemics
endemic species
relic endemism
regional endemism
6. Which of the following is the most important cause for the loss of biodiversity?
habitat destruction
Introduction of Exotic species
Environmental pollution
Urbanization and industrialization
7. Which of the following is an examples of endangered species?
Sambar
Desert fox
Spotted deer
Asiatic Lion
8. Species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause is called
Keystone species
Sibling species
Flagship species
Pioneer species
9. Species that are selected for conservation because the conservation and protection of these species indirectly affects the conservation and protection of other species within their ecosystem is referred as
Umbrella species
Pioneer species
keystone species
Iconic species
10. Species or group of species chosen as an indicator for the state of an ecosystem is called
priority species
Indicator species
Signal species
Point species
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Darwin's theory of Evolution'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection
1. Which of the following is the most critical factor for evolution according to Darwin?
mutation
migration
natural selection
genetic drift
2. Darwin mentioned an island as the “living laboratory of evolutionary samples”. Which is that island?
Madagascar
Galapagos
Macau
Grand Cayman
3. The co-contributer of Theory of organic evolution by natural selection is
August Weismann
Alfred Wallace
J D Hooker
Earnest Haeckal
4. Which is the book in which Darwin published the theory of evolution?
“The evolution of species”
“The origin of species by means of natural selection
“On the evolution of Species by means of natural selection”
On the Origin of Species by means of natural selection
5.In Darwinian theory of Natural selection ‘Prodigality of production’ refers to
over production of species
struggle for existence
resource limitation in over production
all of these
6. According to Darwin, all these factors leads to struggle for existence except
Exotic species introduction
Intra-specific competition
Inter-specific competition
Environmental changes
7.According to Darwin, Natural selection mediated speciation is effected by
small discontinuous variation
small continuous heritable variation
sudden heritable variation
sudden continuous heritable variation
8.Darwin proposed mechanism of speciation is by
anagenesis
sympatric speciation
allopatric speciation
cladogenesis
9.Darwins theory of natural selection was primarily based on his observation during his 5 years long voyage in the survey ship named
HMS Protector
HMS Scott
HMS Beagle
Royal Research Ship
10.Darwin got the idea of natural selection while observing variation of species in different islands. Which is the most important species that helped him to propose the theory of natural selection?
Giant Tortoises
Finches
sea lions
sharks
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Darwin's theory of Evolution'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection
1. Which of the following is the most critical factor for evolution according to Darwin?
mutation
migration
natural selection
genetic drift
2. Darwin mentioned an island as the “living laboratory of evolutionary samples”. Which is that island?
Madagascar
Galapagos
Macau
Grand Cayman
3. The co-contributer of Theory of organic evolution by natural selection is
August Weismann
Alfred Wallace
J D Hooker
Earnest Haeckal
4. Which is the book in which Darwin published the theory of evolution?
“The evolution of species”
“The origin of species by means of natural selection
“On the evolution of Species by means of natural selection”
On the Origin of Species by means of natural selection
5.In Darwinian theory of Natural selection ‘Prodigality of production’ refers to
over production of species
struggle for existence
resource limitation in over production
all of these
6. According to Darwin, all these factors leads to struggle for existence except
Exotic species introduction
Intra-specific competition
Inter-specific competition
Environmental changes
7.According to Darwin, Natural selection mediated speciation is effected by
small discontinuous variation
small continuous heritable variation
sudden heritable variation
sudden continuous heritable variation
8.Darwin proposed mechanism of speciation is by
anagenesis
sympatric speciation
allopatric speciation
cladogenesis
9.Darwins theory of natural selection was primarily based on his observation during his 5 years long voyage in the survey ship named
HMS Protector
HMS Scott
HMS Beagle
Royal Research Ship
10.Darwin got the idea of natural selection while observing variation of species in different islands. Which is the most important species that helped him to propose the theory of natural selection?
Giant Tortoises
Finches
sea lions
sharks
Score =
Correct answers:
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