QuizBiology.com

Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Biochemistry

This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Plant Biochemistry Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress
Histidine
Proline
Cysteine
Methionine
2. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly called
Hatch and Slack pathway
Glycolate pathway
EMP pathway
Shikimic acid pathway
3. Vincristine and vinblastine are
Phenolics
Saponins
Terpenoids
Alkaloids
4. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a
Pentose
Pyranose
Furanose
None of the above
5. ----- is an example for sulphur containing amino acid
Isoleucine
Glycine
Methionine
All of these
6. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants
Cholesterol
Stigmasterol
Sitosterol
Campesterol
7. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called
Dextran
Agarose
Silica
Acrylamide
8. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes
Zymogens
Isozymes
Allozymes
Abzymes
9. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination
Alanine
Lysine
Tryptophan
Glutamate
10. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar
Verbascose
Raffinose
Threose
Stachyose
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Plant Biochemistry Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress
Histidine
Proline
Cysteine
Methionine
2. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly called
Hatch and Slack pathway
Glycolate pathway
EMP pathway
Shikimic acid pathway
3. Vincristine and vinblastine are
Phenolics
Saponins
Terpenoids
Alkaloids
4. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a
Pentose
Pyranose
Furanose
None of the above
5. ----- is an example for sulphur containing amino acid
Isoleucine
Glycine
Methionine
All of these
6. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants
Cholesterol
Stigmasterol
Sitosterol
Campesterol
7. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called
Dextran
Agarose
Silica
Acrylamide
8. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes
Zymogens
Isozymes
Allozymes
Abzymes
9. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination
Alanine
Lysine
Tryptophan
Glutamate
10. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar
Verbascose
Raffinose
Threose
Stachyose
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Paleobotany

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Paleobotany"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Rhynia belongs to a geological period
Devonian
Permean
Carboniferous
Cambrian
2. Which is known as fossil bryophyte
Riccia fluitans
Marchantia palmata
Marchantia polymorpha
Naiadita lanceolata

3. Birbal Sahni is popularly known as
Mycologist
Paleobotanist
Physiologist
Phycologist
4. Baragwanathia, a fossil pteridophyte was discovered from
Rajmahal hills of Bihar (India)
Silurian beds of Victoria (Austraila)
Rhynie chert beds (Scotland)
Mudstones near Gilboa (New york)
5. "Fossil beehives" is the name associated with fossil
Cycads
Coniferales
Ginkgoales
Bryophytes
6. Link between Isoetales and Carboniferous Lepidodendrales is
Sigilaria
Stigmaria
Pleuromia
Lycopodium
7. 'Gothania' are
Leaf genus of Cordaitales
Monosporangiate cones of Bennettiales
Fructifications of Pteridsperms
Fructifications of Cordaitales
8. Which of the following gymnosperm of Bennettiales (Cycadeodales) was recovered from Rajmahal hills by Prof Birbal Sahni
Sahnia
Williamsonia
Pentoxylon
Heterangium
9. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is
Ginkgo
Ephedra
Williamsonia
Lyginopteris
10. Zosterophyllum is a
Fossil algae
Fossil bryophyte
Fossil pteridophyte
Fossil gymnosperms
Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Paleobotany"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Rhynia belongs to a geological period
Devonian
Permean
Carboniferous
Cambrian
2. Which is known as fossil bryophyte
Riccia fluitans
Marchantia palmata
Marchantia polymorpha
Naiadita lanceolata

3. Birbal Sahni is popularly known as
Mycologist
Paleobotanist
Physiologist
Phycologist
4. Baragwanathia, a fossil pteridophyte was discovered from
Rajmahal hills of Bihar (India)
Silurian beds of Victoria (Austraila)
Rhynie chert beds (Scotland)
Mudstones near Gilboa (New york)
5. "Fossil beehives" is the name associated with fossil
Cycads
Coniferales
Ginkgoales
Bryophytes
6. Link between Isoetales and Carboniferous Lepidodendrales is
Sigilaria
Stigmaria
Pleuromia
Lycopodium
7. 'Gothania' are
Leaf genus of Cordaitales
Monosporangiate cones of Bennettiales
Fructifications of Pteridsperms
Fructifications of Cordaitales
8. Which of the following gymnosperm of Bennettiales (Cycadeodales) was recovered from Rajmahal hills by Prof Birbal Sahni
Sahnia
Williamsonia
Pentoxylon
Heterangium
9. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is
Ginkgo
Ephedra
Williamsonia
Lyginopteris
10. Zosterophyllum is a
Fossil algae
Fossil bryophyte
Fossil pteridophyte
Fossil gymnosperms
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Quiz on Interesting Fungi Facts

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "fascinating facts about fungus"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amazing Fungi facts


1. The most common fungal resident of aeroplane fuel tank is
Penicillium notatum
Cladosporium resinae
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Cercospora arachidicola
2. Which of the following is the most deadliest mushroom?
Amanita muscaria
Trametes versicolor
Ganoderma lucidum
Amanita phalloides
3. The fungus called as the "Drosophila of the fungal world"
Neurospora crassa
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Aspergillus flexuosus
Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Irish Potato Famine of 1845–49 which killed more than one million people of Ireland was caused by the fungus
Pythium aphanidermatum
Pythium insidiosum
Phytophthora ramorum
Phytophthora infestans
5.The largest and the oldest living creature on earth is a fungus which covers 3.8 km across and weigh about 605 metric tons is
Armillaria ostoyae
Armillaria mellea
Armillaria borealis
A. luteobubalina
6. The fastest accelerating organism on Earth is a Fungus which happens during its spore dispersal. The fungus is
Pythium
Pilobolus
Phytophthora
Peziza
7. Which of the following is a bioluminescent (can glow in dark) fungus?
Amanita muscaria
Agaricus bisporus
Armillaria borealis
Panellus stipticus
8. The fungus behind the Roquefort cheese; one of the world's best known blue cheeses is
Saccharomyces
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Alternaria
9. Ergot alkaloids like ergotamine which is widely used as a medicine is obtained from
Rhizopus
Mucor
Claviceps
Cercospora
10. Which of the following is a symbiotic association of fungus with roots of higher plants?
Lichen
mycorrhiza
Sclerotia
All of these
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This quiz is designed to make you aware some "fascinating facts about fungus"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amazing Fungi facts


1. The most common fungal resident of aeroplane fuel tank is
Penicillium notatum
Cladosporium resinae
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Cercospora arachidicola
2. Which of the following is the most deadliest mushroom?
Amanita muscaria
Trametes versicolor
Ganoderma lucidum
Amanita phalloides
3. The fungus called as the "Drosophila of the fungal world"
Neurospora crassa
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Aspergillus flexuosus
Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Irish Potato Famine of 1845–49 which killed more than one million people of Ireland was caused by the fungus
Pythium aphanidermatum
Pythium insidiosum
Phytophthora ramorum
Phytophthora infestans
5.The largest and the oldest living creature on earth is a fungus which covers 3.8 km across and weigh about 605 metric tons is
Armillaria ostoyae
Armillaria mellea
Armillaria borealis
A. luteobubalina
6. The fastest accelerating organism on Earth is a Fungus which happens during its spore dispersal. The fungus is
Pythium
Pilobolus
Phytophthora
Peziza
7. Which of the following is a bioluminescent (can glow in dark) fungus?
Amanita muscaria
Agaricus bisporus
Armillaria borealis
Panellus stipticus
8. The fungus behind the Roquefort cheese; one of the world's best known blue cheeses is
Saccharomyces
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Alternaria
9. Ergot alkaloids like ergotamine which is widely used as a medicine is obtained from
Rhizopus
Mucor
Claviceps
Cercospora
10. Which of the following is a symbiotic association of fungus with roots of higher plants?
Lichen
mycorrhiza
Sclerotia
All of these
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Plant Pathology Online Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "plant pathology"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis
magnesium
calcium
nitrogen
cobalt
2. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of
Nitrogen
Manganese
Sodium
Zinc
3. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus
Phytoalexin
Dystrophin
Amphylotoxin
Aflatoxin
4. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by
Agaricus
Penicillium
Puccinia
Rhizopus
5. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as
orange rust
black rust
green rust
yellow rust
6. Blast disease of rice is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Scleroticum oryzae
Pseudomonas oryzae
Helminthosporium oryzae
7. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuele
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces aureofaciens
8. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is
Insect transmitted
Root transmitted
Soil transmitted
Sap transmitted
9. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Phytophthora infestans
Colletotrichum falcatum
Xanthomaonas Oryzae
10. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called
Spot
Canker
Die-back
Scorch
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "plant pathology"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis
magnesium
calcium
nitrogen
cobalt
2. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of
Nitrogen
Manganese
Sodium
Zinc
3. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus
Phytoalexin
Dystrophin
Amphylotoxin
Aflatoxin
4. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by
Agaricus
Penicillium
Puccinia
Rhizopus
5. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as
orange rust
black rust
green rust
yellow rust
6. Blast disease of rice is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Scleroticum oryzae
Pseudomonas oryzae
Helminthosporium oryzae
7. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuele
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces aureofaciens
8. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is
Insect transmitted
Root transmitted
Soil transmitted
Sap transmitted
9. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Phytophthora infestans
Colletotrichum falcatum
Xanthomaonas Oryzae
10. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called
Spot
Canker
Die-back
Scorch
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Lichens

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Lichen"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Lichen Quiz

1. Lichens that are rock dwellers with xerophytic adaptations are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
2. If the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes, then called
ascomycetes
ascomycetes lichen
lichen
ascolichen
3. Terrestrial species that grow in soil are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
4. Leprose lichens are
crust like
leaf like
pendulous
scale like
5. Graphis is a
foliose lichen
fruticose lichen
crustose lichen
filamentous lichen
6. Which of the lichen is used to treat hydrophobia?
Peltigera
Cetraria
Cladonia
Graphis
7. Usnic acid, a broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from
Usnea
Cladonia
both Usnea and Cladonia
Usnea only
8. Which of the following lichen is called as the “reindeer moss” (food for reindeer)
Cetraria islandica
Cladonia rengiferina
Peltigera canina
Evernia
9. Which of the following lichen are the pioneers in xerosere
foliose lichens
leprose lichens
crustose lichens
fruticose lichen
10. Letharia vulpine is a poisonous lichen as they secrete
letharic acid
vulpinic acid
usnic acid
selinium
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Lichen"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Lichen Quiz

1. Lichens that are rock dwellers with xerophytic adaptations are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
2. If the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes, then called
ascomycetes
ascomycetes lichen
lichen
ascolichen
3. Terrestrial species that grow in soil are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
4. Leprose lichens are
crust like
leaf like
pendulous
scale like
5. Graphis is a
foliose lichen
fruticose lichen
crustose lichen
filamentous lichen
6. Which of the lichen is used to treat hydrophobia?
Peltigera
Cetraria
Cladonia
Graphis
7. Usnic acid, a broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from
Usnea
Cladonia
both Usnea and Cladonia
Usnea only
8. Which of the following lichen is called as the “reindeer moss” (food for reindeer)
Cetraria islandica
Cladonia rengiferina
Peltigera canina
Evernia
9. Which of the following lichen are the pioneers in xerosere
foliose lichens
leprose lichens
crustose lichens
fruticose lichen
10. Letharia vulpine is a poisonous lichen as they secrete
letharic acid
vulpinic acid
usnic acid
selinium
Score =
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Quiz on Greenhouse Effect

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Greenhouse effect"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Greenhouse effect animation
1. Why heat trapping by CO2, CH4 etc in the atmosphere is called 'green house effect'?
Garden Green house is permeable to both heat and sunlight
Garden Green house is impermeable to sunlight
Garden Green house is permeable to sunlight and impermeable to heat
Garden Green house is impermeable to both sunlight and heat
2. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
CO2, and CH4
CO2 and N2O
N and O
H2O and O3
3. Half of the green house effect is caused by
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
4. Which is the most potent green house gas in terms of efficiency?
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
5. The gradual rise in atmospheric temperature due to increase in green house gases is called
Green house effect
Global warming
ozone depletion
thermal hyperalgesia
6. Which of the following statement is false about green house effect?
Increased emission of green house gases is a natural process
Life on earth is possible due to green house effect
Increased emmision of green house gases in the atmosphere increases earths temperature
Green house effect is a natural process that maintains earth temperature
7. The proportion of CO2 emission by human activities that remains in the atmosphere after a specified time is called
green house emission
CO2 emission
airborne fraction
Annual CO2 emission
8. The largest human source of carbon dioxide emissions is from
burning of fossil fuels
deforestation
land degradation
agriculture
9. The largest single source of global greenhouse gas emissions is accounted by the economic sector
transportation
industry
electricity and heat generation
agriculture and deforestation
10. The major human sources of methane emissions are
Fossil fuel production and livestock farming
Fossil fuel production and biomass burning
Fossil fuel production and agriculture
Fossil fuel production and biofuels
Score =
Correct answers:

Image courtesy: https://www.environment.gov.au/climate-change/climate-science/greenhouse-effect
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Greenhouse effect"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Greenhouse effect animation
1. Why heat trapping by CO2, CH4 etc in the atmosphere is called 'green house effect'?
Garden Green house is permeable to both heat and sunlight
Garden Green house is impermeable to sunlight
Garden Green house is permeable to sunlight and impermeable to heat
Garden Green house is impermeable to both sunlight and heat
2. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
CO2, and CH4
CO2 and N2O
N and O
H2O and O3
3. Half of the green house effect is caused by
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
4. Which is the most potent green house gas in terms of efficiency?
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
5. The gradual rise in atmospheric temperature due to increase in green house gases is called
Green house effect
Global warming
ozone depletion
thermal hyperalgesia
6. Which of the following statement is false about green house effect?
Increased emission of green house gases is a natural process
Life on earth is possible due to green house effect
Increased emmision of green house gases in the atmosphere increases earths temperature
Green house effect is a natural process that maintains earth temperature
7. The proportion of CO2 emission by human activities that remains in the atmosphere after a specified time is called
green house emission
CO2 emission
airborne fraction
Annual CO2 emission
8. The largest human source of carbon dioxide emissions is from
burning of fossil fuels
deforestation
land degradation
agriculture
9. The largest single source of global greenhouse gas emissions is accounted by the economic sector
transportation
industry
electricity and heat generation
agriculture and deforestation
10. The major human sources of methane emissions are
Fossil fuel production and livestock farming
Fossil fuel production and biomass burning
Fossil fuel production and agriculture
Fossil fuel production and biofuels
Score =
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Image courtesy: https://www.environment.gov.au/climate-change/climate-science/greenhouse-effect
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Diagram Quiz on Nitrogen Cycle

This diagram quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Nitrogen cycle"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Nitrogen cycle

1. The major reservoir of Nitrogen is
atmosphere
soil
water
rocks
2. Biological Nitrogen fixation refers to the conversion of
atmospheric N2 to NO3- and NH3
atmospheric N2 to NO2
atmospheric N2 to NH3
atmospheric NH3 to NO3
3. Approximately 70% of all nitrogen fixed is through biological fixation. The nitrogen fixing bacterium that lives symbiotically in the roots nodules of leguminous plants labelled A is
Clostridium
Azotobacter
Rhizobium
Psuedomonas
4. Free living nitrogen fixers in soil labelled B, that helps in N2 fixation include
Azotobacter and Clostridium
Anabaena and Nostoc
Beijerinckia and Klebsiella
All of the above
5. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrate (NO3-), labelled C is called
Denitrification
Assimilation
Ammonification
Nitrification
6. Nitrite (NO2) is further oxidized and converted to nitrate (NO3) by a bacterium labelled D is
Nitrobacter
Pseudomonas
Acetobacter
Nitrosomonas
7. The plants absorb nitrates (NO3) from the soil and use them for the synthesis of proteins. The process labelled E is called
nitrification
assimilation
ammonification
Denitrification
8. The process labelled F where ammonium (NH4) is formed from amino acids by decomposers is
amination
nitrogen fixation
ammonification
nitrification
9. The process labelled G return part of fixed nitrogen back to the atmosphere by converting nitrates (NO3-) back to nitrogen gas (N2)is
denitrogen fixation
denitrification
nitrification
deamination
10. The bacteria involved in denitrification process include
Pseudomonas
Thiobacillus denitrificans
Micrococcus denitrificans
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
This diagram quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Nitrogen cycle"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Nitrogen cycle

1. The major reservoir of Nitrogen is
atmosphere
soil
water
rocks
2. Biological Nitrogen fixation refers to the conversion of
atmospheric N2 to NO3- and NH3
atmospheric N2 to NO2
atmospheric N2 to NH3
atmospheric NH3 to NO3
3. Approximately 70% of all nitrogen fixed is through biological fixation. The nitrogen fixing bacterium that lives symbiotically in the roots nodules of leguminous plants labelled A is
Clostridium
Azotobacter
Rhizobium
Psuedomonas
4. Free living nitrogen fixers in soil labelled B, that helps in N2 fixation include
Azotobacter and Clostridium
Anabaena and Nostoc
Beijerinckia and Klebsiella
All of the above
5. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrate (NO3-), labelled C is called
Denitrification
Assimilation
Ammonification
Nitrification
6. Nitrite (NO2) is further oxidized and converted to nitrate (NO3) by a bacterium labelled D is
Nitrobacter
Pseudomonas
Acetobacter
Nitrosomonas
7. The plants absorb nitrates (NO3) from the soil and use them for the synthesis of proteins. The process labelled E is called
nitrification
assimilation
ammonification
Denitrification
8. The process labelled F where ammonium (NH4) is formed from amino acids by decomposers is
amination
nitrogen fixation
ammonification
nitrification
9. The process labelled G return part of fixed nitrogen back to the atmosphere by converting nitrates (NO3-) back to nitrogen gas (N2)is
denitrogen fixation
denitrification
nitrification
deamination
10. The bacteria involved in denitrification process include
Pseudomonas
Thiobacillus denitrificans
Micrococcus denitrificans
All of the above
Score =
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Multiple Choice Questions on Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. In the diagram, the structure labelled A which forms the backbone of the plasma membrane is the
glycoprotein
lipid bilayer
carbohydrate
extrinsic protein
2. The bio molecule labelled B involved in recognition is
carbohydrate
glycoprotein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
3. It is loosely attached to the lipid bi layer and is hydrophilic. The component labelled C is
intrinsic protein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
4. Increased amount of compound labelled D decreases fluidity at 37oC. It is the
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
hydrophobic tail
globular proteins
5. The structure labelled E serves as transport channels or transmembrane channels. These are
integral proteins
peripheral proteins
extrinsic protein
phospholipid bilayer
6. Increased chain length of the bio molecule labelled F decreases membrane fluidity. This hydrophobic entity is the
cytoskeleton
hydrophobic tails
integral proteins
fatty acid chain
7. Carbohydrates bound to the peripheral protein labelled G is
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
glycoprotein
glycolipid
8. The most extensive hydrophilic region on the membrane labelled H is the
hydrophilic head group
hydrophilic phosphate group
hydrophilic carbohydrate
hydrophilic extrinsic proteins
9. The bio molecule labelled I which is in close association with lipid bi layer is the
glycoprotein
globular protein
hydrophilic carbohydrate
glycolipid
10. Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane was proposed by
S J Singer and Garth L Nicolson
Meselson and Stahl
Danielli and Davson
David Robertson
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. In the diagram, the structure labelled A which forms the backbone of the plasma membrane is the
glycoprotein
lipid bilayer
carbohydrate
extrinsic protein
2. The bio molecule labelled B involved in recognition is
carbohydrate
glycoprotein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
3. It is loosely attached to the lipid bi layer and is hydrophilic. The component labelled C is
intrinsic protein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
4. Increased amount of compound labelled D decreases fluidity at 37oC. It is the
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
hydrophobic tail
globular proteins
5. The structure labelled E serves as transport channels or transmembrane channels. These are
integral proteins
peripheral proteins
extrinsic protein
phospholipid bilayer
6. Increased chain length of the bio molecule labelled F decreases membrane fluidity. This hydrophobic entity is the
cytoskeleton
hydrophobic tails
integral proteins
fatty acid chain
7. Carbohydrates bound to the peripheral protein labelled G is
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
glycoprotein
glycolipid
8. The most extensive hydrophilic region on the membrane labelled H is the
hydrophilic head group
hydrophilic phosphate group
hydrophilic carbohydrate
hydrophilic extrinsic proteins
9. The bio molecule labelled I which is in close association with lipid bi layer is the
glycoprotein
globular protein
hydrophilic carbohydrate
glycolipid
10. Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane was proposed by
S J Singer and Garth L Nicolson
Meselson and Stahl
Danielli and Davson
David Robertson
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SAT Biology Practice Test Ecology Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT to be considered as a density-dependent factor affecting population size?
parasitism
tornado
disease epidemic
competition
predation
2. The role of a particular species within an ecosystem, including all of its interactions with both biotic and abiotic factors, is known as the species
habitat
habit
ecological niche
carrying capacity
environment
3. The interaction between termites and the particular strains of bacteria that live in their gut are considered as mutualistic. This type of interactions among species is characterized as
−/−.
+/0.
+/+.
−/0.
+/−.
4. Which of the following best describes a pattern of idealized population growth that is restricted by limiting factors?
carrying capacity model
logistic growth model
exponential growth model
dispersion model
habitat cap model
5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding species?
A population is a local subset of a species.
A species is one type of population.
A species is a local subset of a population.
A population encompasses many different species.
The terms population and species are interchangeable.
6. Which of the following terms best encompasses all of the populations of organisms living together and potentially interacting in an area?
biome
ecosystem
ecological niche
biological community
geographical community
7. The human population, from Stone Age times to the present, is best represented by
a normal distribution curve.
an exponential growth curve.
a logistic growth curve.
a bimodel distribution curve.
a random growth curve.
8. If a population exceeds the carrying capacity of the ecosystem, the most likely outcome would be
an increase in resources to meet its needs.
extinction of the species.
an eventual decline in population size.
a steady increase in population size.
maintenance of the current population size indefinitely
9. The use of specially bred strains of bacteria to clean up oil spills along beaches is an example of
ecological succession.
decomposition
bioremediation
eutrophication
primary succession
10. The two fundamental processes that govern the dynamics of an ecosystem are
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
the carbon cycle and photosynthesis
solar radiation and the carbon cycle
photosynthesis and respiration.
the nitrogen cycle and the phosphorous cycle.
Score =
Correct answers:
1. Which of the following is NOT to be considered as a density-dependent factor affecting population size?
parasitism
tornado
disease epidemic
competition
predation
2. The role of a particular species within an ecosystem, including all of its interactions with both biotic and abiotic factors, is known as the species
habitat
habit
ecological niche
carrying capacity
environment
3. The interaction between termites and the particular strains of bacteria that live in their gut are considered as mutualistic. This type of interactions among species is characterized as
−/−.
+/0.
+/+.
−/0.
+/−.
4. Which of the following best describes a pattern of idealized population growth that is restricted by limiting factors?
carrying capacity model
logistic growth model
exponential growth model
dispersion model
habitat cap model
5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding species?
A population is a local subset of a species.
A species is one type of population.
A species is a local subset of a population.
A population encompasses many different species.
The terms population and species are interchangeable.
6. Which of the following terms best encompasses all of the populations of organisms living together and potentially interacting in an area?
biome
ecosystem
ecological niche
biological community
geographical community
7. The human population, from Stone Age times to the present, is best represented by
a normal distribution curve.
an exponential growth curve.
a logistic growth curve.
a bimodel distribution curve.
a random growth curve.
8. If a population exceeds the carrying capacity of the ecosystem, the most likely outcome would be
an increase in resources to meet its needs.
extinction of the species.
an eventual decline in population size.
a steady increase in population size.
maintenance of the current population size indefinitely
9. The use of specially bred strains of bacteria to clean up oil spills along beaches is an example of
ecological succession.
decomposition
bioremediation
eutrophication
primary succession
10. The two fundamental processes that govern the dynamics of an ecosystem are
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
the carbon cycle and photosynthesis
solar radiation and the carbon cycle
photosynthesis and respiration.
the nitrogen cycle and the phosphorous cycle.
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Quiz on Zika virus

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Ecological Succession

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ecological succession"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Large woody vines are more commonly found in
magroves
alpine forests
scrub forests
tropical rain forests
2. The stable community structure of an ecosystem is termed as
biocommunity
dominant community
domicile factor
climax community
3. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
it occurs on a deforested site
it follows primary succession
it begins on a bare rock
it is similar to primary succesion except that it has a relatively slower pace
4. Select the correct match A. Sedimentary nutrient cycle - Nitogen cycle B. Pioneer species - Lichens C. Secondary succession - Burned forests D. Pyramid of biomass in sea -Upright
A, B and D only
A and C only
B and C only
A, B and C only
5. Quercus species are the dominant component in
Biocommunity
dominant community
climax community
Domicile factor
6. Plant succession taking place in sandy area
halosere
psammosere
hydrosere
xerosere
7. Lithosphere serves as reservoir
for carbon cycles
for phosphorus cycles
for oxygen cycles
for nitrogen cycles
8. When vegetation of any region reaches climax, it is
xerophytic
mesophytic
hydrophytic
lithophytic
9. Which of the following in not a climax vegetation?
forests
hydrophytes
savannah
grasses
10. -1 oC to 13 oC annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 to 250 cm annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of a major biome as
grassland
coniferous forest
desert
temperate forest
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This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ecological succession"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Large woody vines are more commonly found in
magroves
alpine forests
scrub forests
tropical rain forests
2. The stable community structure of an ecosystem is termed as
biocommunity
dominant community
domicile factor
climax community
3. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
it occurs on a deforested site
it follows primary succession
it begins on a bare rock
it is similar to primary succesion except that it has a relatively slower pace
4. Select the correct match A. Sedimentary nutrient cycle - Nitogen cycle B. Pioneer species - Lichens C. Secondary succession - Burned forests D. Pyramid of biomass in sea -Upright
A, B and D only
A and C only
B and C only
A, B and C only
5. Quercus species are the dominant component in
Biocommunity
dominant community
climax community
Domicile factor
6. Plant succession taking place in sandy area
halosere
psammosere
hydrosere
xerosere
7. Lithosphere serves as reservoir
for carbon cycles
for phosphorus cycles
for oxygen cycles
for nitrogen cycles
8. When vegetation of any region reaches climax, it is
xerophytic
mesophytic
hydrophytic
lithophytic
9. Which of the following in not a climax vegetation?
forests
hydrophytes
savannah
grasses
10. -1 oC to 13 oC annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 to 250 cm annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of a major biome as
grassland
coniferous forest
desert
temperate forest
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Breeding

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Plant breeding"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Green revolution in India occurred during
1950
1960
1970
1980
2.Selection of homozygous plants is
mass selection
pureline selection
both a and b
none of these
3.Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?
It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations
it leads to homozygosity
it is used to produce a pure line
it always increases the productivity
4. Breeding crops for improved nutritional quality is referred to as
biomining
biomagnification
biofortification
bioremediation
5. Triticale is developed through intergeneric hybridization of
Wheat and rye
Maize and rice
Wheat and rice
Wheat and barley
6. ‘Parbhani kranti’, a variety of lady finger ( bhindi) , is resistant to
Leaf curl
Bacterial blight
Black rot
Yellow mosaic of virus
7. Heterosis lost due to continuous inbreeding known as
Hybrid vigour
Inbreeding depression
Outbreeding depression
none of these
8. Semi dwarf rice variety IR8 was developed in
India
Taiwan
China
Philippines
9. Breeding for disease resistance requires
Good source of resistance
Disease test
Planned hybridisation
All of the above
10. ‘Sonalika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ are high yielding varieties of
Rice
Wheat
Maize
Sugar cane
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This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Plant breeding"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Green revolution in India occurred during
1950
1960
1970
1980
2.Selection of homozygous plants is
mass selection
pureline selection
both a and b
none of these
3.Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?
It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations
it leads to homozygosity
it is used to produce a pure line
it always increases the productivity
4. Breeding crops for improved nutritional quality is referred to as
biomining
biomagnification
biofortification
bioremediation
5. Triticale is developed through intergeneric hybridization of
Wheat and rye
Maize and rice
Wheat and rice
Wheat and barley
6. ‘Parbhani kranti’, a variety of lady finger ( bhindi) , is resistant to
Leaf curl
Bacterial blight
Black rot
Yellow mosaic of virus
7. Heterosis lost due to continuous inbreeding known as
Hybrid vigour
Inbreeding depression
Outbreeding depression
none of these
8. Semi dwarf rice variety IR8 was developed in
India
Taiwan
China
Philippines
9. Breeding for disease resistance requires
Good source of resistance
Disease test
Planned hybridisation
All of the above
10. ‘Sonalika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ are high yielding varieties of
Rice
Wheat
Maize
Sugar cane
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Diagram quiz on Flower Parts

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Parts of a flower"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.



1. Which of the following is a justification for considering the above flower as a ‘complete flower’?
Presence of calyx and corolla
Presence of stamens and carpels
Presence of androecium and gynoecium only
Presence of all four whorls
2. The region labeled C and D are called the reproductive whorls of a flower. The whorls are
gynoecium and androecium
stamens and carpels
carpels and stamens
anther and stigma
3. The part labeled A is the outermost whorl of the flower. It is the
perianth
calyx
corolla
style
4. Stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower (C). Each stamen consists of two parts, labeled E and F in the diagram. It is the
anther and style
anther and filament
style and filament
stigma and filament
5. The region labeled A and B are called the vegetative whorls of a flower. The whorls are
calyx and sepals
calyx and corolla
calyx and carpels
corolla and carpels
6. The brightly coloured whorl is the corolla (B). The corolla is composed of
sepals
petals
stamens
ovule
7. Carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower. Each carpel consists of three parts, labeled G, H and I in the diagram. The part that receives pollen grains during pollination is G. It is the
anther
ovule
stigma
style
8. The flower in the diagram has both male (stamen) and female (carpel) reproductive whorls. Such a flower is called as
unisexual
bisexual
dioecious
autoecious
9. The part labeled J is the site where female gamete or egg develops. It is the
ovary
ovule
anther
stigma
10. The ovules are formed from a soft tissue called placenta of the part labeled I. I is the
ovary
embryo
egg
stigma
11. After fertilization, the regions that develops to fruit and seed is labeled as I and J. It is the
stigma and style
ovary and ovule
ovule and ovary
anther and ovule
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Related Quizzes: Bacterial Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Plant Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Quiz on Cell structure and function
                            Quiz on Cell Biology
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Parts of a flower"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.



1. Which of the following is a justification for considering the above flower as a ‘complete flower’?
Presence of calyx and corolla
Presence of stamens and carpels
Presence of androecium and gynoecium only
Presence of all four whorls
2. The region labeled C and D are called the reproductive whorls of a flower. The whorls are
gynoecium and androecium
stamens and carpels
carpels and stamens
anther and stigma
3. The part labeled A is the outermost whorl of the flower. It is the
perianth
calyx
corolla
style
4. Stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower (C). Each stamen consists of two parts, labeled E and F in the diagram. It is the
anther and style
anther and filament
style and filament
stigma and filament
5. The region labeled A and B are called the vegetative whorls of a flower. The whorls are
calyx and sepals
calyx and corolla
calyx and carpels
corolla and carpels
6. The brightly coloured whorl is the corolla (B). The corolla is composed of
sepals
petals
stamens
ovule
7. Carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower. Each carpel consists of three parts, labeled G, H and I in the diagram. The part that receives pollen grains during pollination is G. It is the
anther
ovule
stigma
style
8. The flower in the diagram has both male (stamen) and female (carpel) reproductive whorls. Such a flower is called as
unisexual
bisexual
dioecious
autoecious
9. The part labeled J is the site where female gamete or egg develops. It is the
ovary
ovule
anther
stigma
10. The ovules are formed from a soft tissue called placenta of the part labeled I. I is the
ovary
embryo
egg
stigma
11. After fertilization, the regions that develops to fruit and seed is labeled as I and J. It is the
stigma and style
ovary and ovule
ovule and ovary
anther and ovule
Score =
Correct answers:
Related Quizzes: Bacterial Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Plant Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Quiz on Cell structure and function
                            Quiz on Cell Biology
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Genetics Terminology Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Basic Genetics terms"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Gene is a
segment of aminoacid sequence that codes for a functional polypeptide
segment of DNA that codes for proteins and RNAs
segment of DNA that codes for functional polypeptide
segment of mRNA that codes for functional polypeptide
2. Alleles are
alternative forms of a protein
alternative forms of mRNA
alternative forms of gene
alternative phenotypes expressed at a loci
3. The cross between F1 hybrid X one of the parental types is called
epistasis
back cross
test cross
dominant epistasis
4. Alleles are located on the
same locus of homologous chromosomes
different locus of homologous chromosomes
same locus of sister chromatids
different locus of sister chromatids
5. A cross involving two allelic pairs (WWYY X wwyy)is called
test cross
monohybrid cross
Dihybrid cross
back cross
6. Test cross that helps to find out the genotype of the offspring is between
unknown individual X F1
unknown individual X any of the parent
unknown individual X recessive parent
unknown individual X dominant parent
7. The presence of only one allele in a pair is called as
homozygous
hemizygous
heterozygous
monoallelic
8. All genotypes of all organisms in a population forms
genome
gene pool
proteome
mosaicism
9. Locus is the
fixed position of chromosome in the mataphase plate
fixed position of a gene on a chromosome
fixed position of a DNA tandem repeats on a chromosome
fixed position of active genes on a chromosome
10. Genome represents
complete genes in a diploid cell
complete genes in a gamete
complete chromosomes in a diploid cell
complete genes and proteins in a diploid cell
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Take Quiz on Genetic Code
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Basic Genetics terms"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Gene is a
segment of aminoacid sequence that codes for a functional polypeptide
segment of DNA that codes for proteins and RNAs
segment of DNA that codes for functional polypeptide
segment of mRNA that codes for functional polypeptide
2. Alleles are
alternative forms of a protein
alternative forms of mRNA
alternative forms of gene
alternative phenotypes expressed at a loci
3. The cross between F1 hybrid X one of the parental types is called
epistasis
back cross
test cross
dominant epistasis
4. Alleles are located on the
same locus of homologous chromosomes
different locus of homologous chromosomes
same locus of sister chromatids
different locus of sister chromatids
5. A cross involving two allelic pairs (WWYY X wwyy)is called
test cross
monohybrid cross
Dihybrid cross
back cross
6. Test cross that helps to find out the genotype of the offspring is between
unknown individual X F1
unknown individual X any of the parent
unknown individual X recessive parent
unknown individual X dominant parent
7. The presence of only one allele in a pair is called as
homozygous
hemizygous
heterozygous
monoallelic
8. All genotypes of all organisms in a population forms
genome
gene pool
proteome
mosaicism
9. Locus is the
fixed position of chromosome in the mataphase plate
fixed position of a gene on a chromosome
fixed position of a DNA tandem repeats on a chromosome
fixed position of active genes on a chromosome
10. Genome represents
complete genes in a diploid cell
complete genes in a gamete
complete chromosomes in a diploid cell
complete genes and proteins in a diploid cell
Score =
Correct answers:
Take Quiz on Genetic Code
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