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Plant Cell and Animal Cell Diagram Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Difference between plant cell and animal cell".Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Related Quizzes: Bacterial Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Plant Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Quiz on Cell structure and function
                            Quiz on Cell Biology
Labeled diagram Plant Cell and Animal Cell
1. Which of the following is a justification for considering diagram 1 as a plant cell?
Presence of mitochondrion
Presence of vacoule
Presence of cell wall
Presence of plasma membrane
2. The structure labeled A is present in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The structure is
Ribosomes
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Endoplasmic reticulum
3. The organelle labeled F is responsible for life in this planet and animal cells lack this organelle. The organelle is
Mitochondrion
Ribosomes
Chloroplast
Nucleus
4. This is the physical basis of life where all organelles are present. The site labeled C is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasm
lysosomes
5. The structure labeled E is called “CPU of the cell” where the genetic material resides. It is the
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
Golgi apparatus
6. The structure labeled G give rise to spindle fibers and exclusively seen in animal cell. The structure is called
Lysosome
Peroxisome
Centriole
Endoplasmic reticulam
7. The organelle H is the “power house of the cell” in all eukaryotes where ATP is synthesized. The organelle is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
lysosome
8. It is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins. The organelle labeled I is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
9. It is the site of lipid biosynthesis and drug detoxification. The organelle labeled J is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondrion
10. Unlike animal cells, plant cells possess cell wall and large vacuole. In the diagram, it is labeled as
A and D respectively
B and D respectively
B and C respectively
C and D respectively
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Difference between plant cell and animal cell".Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Related Quizzes: Bacterial Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Plant Cell Diagram Quiz
                            Quiz on Cell structure and function
                            Quiz on Cell Biology
Labeled diagram Plant Cell and Animal Cell
1. Which of the following is a justification for considering diagram 1 as a plant cell?
Presence of mitochondrion
Presence of vacoule
Presence of cell wall
Presence of plasma membrane
2. The structure labeled A is present in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The structure is
Ribosomes
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Endoplasmic reticulum
3. The organelle labeled F is responsible for life in this planet and animal cells lack this organelle. The organelle is
Mitochondrion
Ribosomes
Chloroplast
Nucleus
4. This is the physical basis of life where all organelles are present. The site labeled C is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasm
lysosomes
5. The structure labeled E is called “CPU of the cell” where the genetic material resides. It is the
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
Golgi apparatus
6. The structure labeled G give rise to spindle fibers and exclusively seen in animal cell. The structure is called
Lysosome
Peroxisome
Centriole
Endoplasmic reticulam
7. The organelle H is the “power house of the cell” in all eukaryotes where ATP is synthesized. The organelle is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
lysosome
8. It is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins. The organelle labeled I is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
9. It is the site of lipid biosynthesis and drug detoxification. The organelle labeled J is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondrion
10. Unlike animal cells, plant cells possess cell wall and large vacuole. In the diagram, it is labeled as
A and D respectively
B and D respectively
B and C respectively
C and D respectively
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Protein Synthesis

Multiple Choice Quiz on Protein Synthesis
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Protein Synthesis’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. If mRNA codon is 5'AUG 3', then the tRNA anticodon will be
5'UAC3'
5'GUA3'
3'CAU5'
3'UAC5'
2. In amino acid activation, the activated amino acid attach to the 3' end of the tRNA through
adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
3. Which is the bond that joins amino acid with tRNA?
H bond
Di sulphide bond
ionic bond
ester bond
4. The ribosome binding site on mRNA in prokaryotes is called Shine-Dalgarno sequence which is
3'AGGAGGU5'
5'AGGAGGU3'
5'AGGGAGGGU3'
5'AGAAGGU3'
5. The 40S preinitiation complex in eukaryotes consists of
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF1-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF2-GTP
40S subunit-Ala tRNA Ala-eIF3-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF4B-ATP
6. The Aminoacyl A-site and Peptidyl P-site are located on
A site in smaller subunit and P site in larger subunit
Smaller subunit
larger subunit
P site in smaller subunit and A site in larger subunit
7. Which of the following factors are required for binding of 30S and 50S subunits of ribosomes?
GTP and Mg2+
ATP and Mg2+
GTP and K+
ATP and K+
8. Which of the following is correct about termination of protein synthesis in Eukaryotes?
Termination occurs when stop codon on mRNA reaches the A site of ribosome
RF1 and RF2 releases formed polypeptide from P site
Peptidyl transferase catalyses release of polypeptide chain from P site
All of the above
9. The number of ATP and GTP required for addition of an aminoacid to a polypeptide chain is
1 ATP and 1 GTP
1 ATP and 2 GTPs
2 ATPs and 1 GTP
2 ATPs and 2 GTPs
10. How many different amino acyl tRNA synthetase enzymes are required for translation?
20
64
30-40
61
Score =
Correct answers:
Multiple Choice Quiz on Protein Synthesis
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Protein Synthesis’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. If mRNA codon is 5'AUG 3', then the tRNA anticodon will be
5'UAC3'
5'GUA3'
3'CAU5'
3'UAC5'
2. In amino acid activation, the activated amino acid attach to the 3' end of the tRNA through
adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
3. Which is the bond that joins amino acid with tRNA?
H bond
Di sulphide bond
ionic bond
ester bond
4. The ribosome binding site on mRNA in prokaryotes is called Shine-Dalgarno sequence which is
3'AGGAGGU5'
5'AGGAGGU3'
5'AGGGAGGGU3'
5'AGAAGGU3'
5. The 40S preinitiation complex in eukaryotes consists of
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF1-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF2-GTP
40S subunit-Ala tRNA Ala-eIF3-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF4B-ATP
6. The Aminoacyl A-site and Peptidyl P-site are located on
A site in smaller subunit and P site in larger subunit
Smaller subunit
larger subunit
P site in smaller subunit and A site in larger subunit
7. Which of the following factors are required for binding of 30S and 50S subunits of ribosomes?
GTP and Mg2+
ATP and Mg2+
GTP and K+
ATP and K+
8. Which of the following is correct about termination of protein synthesis in Eukaryotes?
Termination occurs when stop codon on mRNA reaches the A site of ribosome
RF1 and RF2 releases formed polypeptide from P site
Peptidyl transferase catalyses release of polypeptide chain from P site
All of the above
9. The number of ATP and GTP required for addition of an aminoacid to a polypeptide chain is
1 ATP and 1 GTP
1 ATP and 2 GTPs
2 ATPs and 1 GTP
2 ATPs and 2 GTPs
10. How many different amino acyl tRNA synthetase enzymes are required for translation?
20
64
30-40
61
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multipl Choice Quiz on Enzymes in Recombinant DNA Technology

Recombinant DNA technology is the sum of techniques used in genetic engineering that involves the identification, isolation and insertion of gene of interest into a vector such as a plasmid or bacteriophage to form a recombinant DNA molecule and production of large quantities of that gene fragment or product encoded by that gene. This practice test will help you to asses your knowledge about the enzymes and its uses in rDNA technology


1. Which of the following enzyme is suitable for dephosphorylation at 5’ end of a DNA strand?
Methyl transferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Polynunucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
2. Which of the following enzyme would you select for protecting a DNA strand from cleavage by restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
Restriction endonuclease
Restriction exonuclease
Methyl transferase
Polynunucleotide kinase
3. If you want to radiolabel a DNA strand using P32, which of the following is the most suited enzyme for that purpose?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Polynucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl transferase
4. Which of the following polymerase enzyme would you select for cDNA synthesis?
DNA polymerase
Taq polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Vent polymerase
5. If you have two DNA fragments A and B, both with blunt ends, In order to make it sticky which enzyme would you select for homopolymer tailing?
DNA polymerase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Reverse transcriptase
6. Once the two fragments are joined, the final sealing phosphodiester bond is formed by
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Transcriptase
Ligase
7. Which of the following enzyme would you select for cutting a DNA strand with recognition sequence ‘GAATTC’?
T4 ligase
Taq polymerase
Eco R1
Alu I
8. Which of the following enzyme groups would you select for cDNA synthesis?
Reverse transcriptase, ribonuclease H and DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and alkaline phosphatase
Ribonuclease H, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
9. Taq polymerase require
A free end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 5-P end for adding complementary nucleotides
Adds complementary nucleotides to both 3’ OH end and 5’P end
10. Match enzyme with its activity 1. Adds phosphate group 2. Forms phosphodiester bond c) Removes phosphate group d) Adds complementary nucleotides
1. Terminal nucleotydyl transferase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Polynucleotide kinase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Ligase 2. DNA polymerase 3. Polynucleotide kinase 4. Reverse transcriptase
1. Ligase 2. Polynucleotide kinase 3. Restriction enzymes 4. DNA polymerase
Score =
Correct answers:
Recombinant DNA technology is the sum of techniques used in genetic engineering that involves the identification, isolation and insertion of gene of interest into a vector such as a plasmid or bacteriophage to form a recombinant DNA molecule and production of large quantities of that gene fragment or product encoded by that gene. This practice test will help you to asses your knowledge about the enzymes and its uses in rDNA technology


1. Which of the following enzyme is suitable for dephosphorylation at 5’ end of a DNA strand?
Methyl transferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Polynunucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
2. Which of the following enzyme would you select for protecting a DNA strand from cleavage by restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
Restriction endonuclease
Restriction exonuclease
Methyl transferase
Polynunucleotide kinase
3. If you want to radiolabel a DNA strand using P32, which of the following is the most suited enzyme for that purpose?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Polynucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl transferase
4. Which of the following polymerase enzyme would you select for cDNA synthesis?
DNA polymerase
Taq polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Vent polymerase
5. If you have two DNA fragments A and B, both with blunt ends, In order to make it sticky which enzyme would you select for homopolymer tailing?
DNA polymerase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Reverse transcriptase
6. Once the two fragments are joined, the final sealing phosphodiester bond is formed by
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Transcriptase
Ligase
7. Which of the following enzyme would you select for cutting a DNA strand with recognition sequence ‘GAATTC’?
T4 ligase
Taq polymerase
Eco R1
Alu I
8. Which of the following enzyme groups would you select for cDNA synthesis?
Reverse transcriptase, ribonuclease H and DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and alkaline phosphatase
Ribonuclease H, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
9. Taq polymerase require
A free end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 5-P end for adding complementary nucleotides
Adds complementary nucleotides to both 3’ OH end and 5’P end
10. Match enzyme with its activity 1. Adds phosphate group 2. Forms phosphodiester bond c) Removes phosphate group d) Adds complementary nucleotides
1. Terminal nucleotydyl transferase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Polynucleotide kinase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Ligase 2. DNA polymerase 3. Polynucleotide kinase 4. Reverse transcriptase
1. Ligase 2. Polynucleotide kinase 3. Restriction enzymes 4. DNA polymerase
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple choice Quiz on DNA Sequencing

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘DNA sequencing’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
DNA chip sequencing
Edman's method
Sanger’s method
Maxam-Gilbert method
2. Which of the following is called as dideoxynucleotide chain termination method?
Sanger's method
Maxam-Gilbert method
Edman's method
Automated sequencing method
3. How many ddNTPs are used in Sanger’s method?
1
2
3
4
4. In automated DNA sequencing,
radio labelled dNTPs are used
radio labelled ddNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used
5. In Maxam-Gilbert method, chemical used for cytosine alteration is
formic acid
hydrazine
Dimethyl sulphate
piperidine
6. The chemical used for strand cleavage in Maxam-Gilbert method is
Piperidine
hydrazine
formic acid
DMSO
7. ddNTP is different from dNTP in having
H in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 2 position of dNTP
CH3 in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
8. Sanger sequenced the first complete genome of
T4 phage
C. elegans
TMV
ФX 174
9. Automated DNA sequencing is an improvement of Sanger’s method where
ddNTPS are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used for chain termination
PCR is used for making sequencing templates
10. Frederick Sanger won Nobel Prize in 1980 for sequencing phage ФX 174. He was already awarded with Nobel Prize in 1958 for
discovery of Sanger’s method
elucidating amino acid sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of somatostatin
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘DNA sequencing’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
DNA chip sequencing
Edman's method
Sanger’s method
Maxam-Gilbert method
2. Which of the following is called as dideoxynucleotide chain termination method?
Sanger's method
Maxam-Gilbert method
Edman's method
Automated sequencing method
3. How many ddNTPs are used in Sanger’s method?
1
2
3
4
4. In automated DNA sequencing,
radio labelled dNTPs are used
radio labelled ddNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used
5. In Maxam-Gilbert method, chemical used for cytosine alteration is
formic acid
hydrazine
Dimethyl sulphate
piperidine
6. The chemical used for strand cleavage in Maxam-Gilbert method is
Piperidine
hydrazine
formic acid
DMSO
7. ddNTP is different from dNTP in having
H in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 2 position of dNTP
CH3 in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
8. Sanger sequenced the first complete genome of
T4 phage
C. elegans
TMV
ФX 174
9. Automated DNA sequencing is an improvement of Sanger’s method where
ddNTPS are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used for chain termination
PCR is used for making sequencing templates
10. Frederick Sanger won Nobel Prize in 1980 for sequencing phage ФX 174. He was already awarded with Nobel Prize in 1958 for
discovery of Sanger’s method
elucidating amino acid sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of somatostatin
Score =
Correct answers:
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MCQ Quiz on Virus Structure

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Virus Structure’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Virus

1. A virus is made up of
Protein coat and mitochondria
protein coat and nucleic acid
nucleic acid and cell membrane
nucleic acid, cell wall and cell membrane

2. The protein coat of viruses that enclose the genetic material is called
virion
peplomers
capsomeres
capsid

3. A virion is
the viral capsid
an intact infectious viral particle
lysogenic phage
lytic phage

4. The genome of virus is
DNA or RNA
DNA
RNA
DNA and RNA

5. Capsomeres are
unit of nucleic acids in viruses
individual units of capsid
viral proteins for replication
all of the above

6. Peplomers are
Projections on the viral membrane
individual units of capsids
spike like projections on the capsid
spike like projections on the enveloped viruses

7. An icosahedral capsid consists of
pentagonal capsomeres
haxagonal capsomeres
both a and b
triangular, pentagonal and hexagonal capsomeres

8. Which of the following has a complex symmetry?
TMV
T4 phage
Adenovirus
Influenza virus

9. Viral envelope is made up of
lipids
proteins
lipids and proteins
lipids and glycoproteins

10. Which of the following is a helical virus
T4 phage
TMV
Pox virus
Herpes virus

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Virus Structure’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Virus

1. A virus is made up of
Protein coat and mitochondria
protein coat and nucleic acid
nucleic acid and cell membrane
nucleic acid, cell wall and cell membrane

2. The protein coat of viruses that enclose the genetic material is called
virion
peplomers
capsomeres
capsid

3. A virion is
the viral capsid
an intact infectious viral particle
lysogenic phage
lytic phage

4. The genome of virus is
DNA or RNA
DNA
RNA
DNA and RNA

5. Capsomeres are
unit of nucleic acids in viruses
individual units of capsid
viral proteins for replication
all of the above

6. Peplomers are
Projections on the viral membrane
individual units of capsids
spike like projections on the capsid
spike like projections on the enveloped viruses

7. An icosahedral capsid consists of
pentagonal capsomeres
haxagonal capsomeres
both a and b
triangular, pentagonal and hexagonal capsomeres

8. Which of the following has a complex symmetry?
TMV
T4 phage
Adenovirus
Influenza virus

9. Viral envelope is made up of
lipids
proteins
lipids and proteins
lipids and glycoproteins

10. Which of the following is a helical virus
T4 phage
TMV
Pox virus
Herpes virus

Score =
Correct answers:

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Immunology Quiz on Hypersensitivity Reactions

This immunology quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Hypersentivity’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
An overview on hypersensitivity
1. Asthma is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Which of the following is called as antibody mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by
B cells and IgE
mast cells and IgG
mast cells and IgE
B cella and Ig G
4. T cells called as TDTH mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
5. Killer cells along with IgM mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
6. Serum sickness is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
7. Tuberculosis is a classical example for
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
8. ‘Arthus’ reaction is a characteristic reaction for the identification of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
9. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as
antibody mediated hypersensitivity
IgE mediated hypersensitivity
cell mediated hypersensitivity
IgG mediated hypersensitivity
10. All are examples of Type I hypersensitivity except
penicillin allergy
serum sickness
dust sickness
pollen allergy
Score =
Correct answers:
This immunology quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Hypersentivity’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
An overview on hypersensitivity
1. Asthma is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Which of the following is called as antibody mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by
B cells and IgE
mast cells and IgG
mast cells and IgE
B cella and Ig G
4. T cells called as TDTH mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
5. Killer cells along with IgM mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
6. Serum sickness is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
7. Tuberculosis is a classical example for
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
8. ‘Arthus’ reaction is a characteristic reaction for the identification of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
9. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as
antibody mediated hypersensitivity
IgE mediated hypersensitivity
cell mediated hypersensitivity
IgG mediated hypersensitivity
10. All are examples of Type I hypersensitivity except
penicillin allergy
serum sickness
dust sickness
pollen allergy
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Cell Theory

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell Theory’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The first man to observe live cell under microscope was
Robert Hooke
Leeuwenhoek
Schleiden
Virchow

2. He placed a slice of cork under his microscope and he called the structure observed as 'cell'. The person mentioned is
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Zacharias Janssen
Schwann
Robert Hooke

3. All the following statements are true regarding the "cell theory" except
All living things or organisms are made of cells
All cells arise spotaneously
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
All cells arise from preexisting cells

4. Robert Hooke published the discovery of the cell in his book
Genera plantarum
Species plantarum
Micrographia
The origin of species

5. All cells arise from preexisting cells. This tenet of cell theory was put forward by
Schwann
Virchow
Schleiden
Robert Hooke

6. The 'theory of cell lineage' was proposed by
Schleiden
Flemming
Virchow
Robert Hooke

7. Robert Hooke's observation of honey comb like structural units under microscope was actually
Plant protoplasm
Plasma membrane
cell wall
entire cell

8. Which of the following is not an exception of cell theory
bacteria
viruses
prions
viroids

9. The 'protoplasm theory' stating protoplasm as the physical basis of life was proposed by
Flemming
Purkinje
Robert Brown
Weismann

10. The nucleus was first described by
Robert Brown
Robert Hooke
Weismann
Nageli

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell Theory’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The first man to observe live cell under microscope was
Robert Hooke
Leeuwenhoek
Schleiden
Virchow

2. He placed a slice of cork under his microscope and he called the structure observed as 'cell'. The person mentioned is
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Zacharias Janssen
Schwann
Robert Hooke

3. All the following statements are true regarding the "cell theory" except
All living things or organisms are made of cells
All cells arise spotaneously
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
All cells arise from preexisting cells

4. Robert Hooke published the discovery of the cell in his book
Genera plantarum
Species plantarum
Micrographia
The origin of species

5. All cells arise from preexisting cells. This tenet of cell theory was put forward by
Schwann
Virchow
Schleiden
Robert Hooke

6. The 'theory of cell lineage' was proposed by
Schleiden
Flemming
Virchow
Robert Hooke

7. Robert Hooke's observation of honey comb like structural units under microscope was actually
Plant protoplasm
Plasma membrane
cell wall
entire cell

8. Which of the following is not an exception of cell theory
bacteria
viruses
prions
viroids

9. The 'protoplasm theory' stating protoplasm as the physical basis of life was proposed by
Flemming
Purkinje
Robert Brown
Weismann

10. The nucleus was first described by
Robert Brown
Robert Hooke
Weismann
Nageli

Score =
Correct answers:

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Multiple Choice Quiz on Cell The Unit of Life

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell - The unit of life’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of
phospholipids and oligosaccharides
phospholipids and hemicellulose
phospholipids and intergral proteins
phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins
2. A bivalent consists of
two chromatids and one centromere
two chromatids and two centromeres
four chromatids and two centromweres
four chromatids and four centromeres
3. Additional of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is
deposition
apposition
aggregation
intussusception
4. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved ones is
cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
nucleus in heredity
chromosomes in heredity
nucleus cytoplasmic ratio
5. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure
cell theory means that all living objects consissts of cells wheather or not capable of reproducing
it needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chrorplasts and mitochondria
cell theory does not hold good because all living beings( eg., viruses) do not have capable of reproducing
modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells capable of reproducing
6. Golgi apparatus is absent in
higher plants
yeast
bacteria and blue green algae
none of the above
7. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with
photorespiration
phototropism
photoperiodism
photosynthesis
8. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of
DNA replication
RNA and protein synthesis
synthesis of lipids
synthesis of polysaccharides
9. The prokaryotic flagella possess
unit membrane enclosed fibre
protein membrane enclosed fibre
9+2 membrane enclosed fibre
helically arranged protein molecule
10. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplasts and mitochondria is explained by
chemiosmotic theory
Munch's hypothesis (mass flow model)
relay pump theory of Godlewski
Cholodny Wont's model
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell - The unit of life’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of
phospholipids and oligosaccharides
phospholipids and hemicellulose
phospholipids and intergral proteins
phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins
2. A bivalent consists of
two chromatids and one centromere
two chromatids and two centromeres
four chromatids and two centromweres
four chromatids and four centromeres
3. Additional of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is
deposition
apposition
aggregation
intussusception
4. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved ones is
cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
nucleus in heredity
chromosomes in heredity
nucleus cytoplasmic ratio
5. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure
cell theory means that all living objects consissts of cells wheather or not capable of reproducing
it needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chrorplasts and mitochondria
cell theory does not hold good because all living beings( eg., viruses) do not have capable of reproducing
modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells capable of reproducing
6. Golgi apparatus is absent in
higher plants
yeast
bacteria and blue green algae
none of the above
7. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with
photorespiration
phototropism
photoperiodism
photosynthesis
8. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of
DNA replication
RNA and protein synthesis
synthesis of lipids
synthesis of polysaccharides
9. The prokaryotic flagella possess
unit membrane enclosed fibre
protein membrane enclosed fibre
9+2 membrane enclosed fibre
helically arranged protein molecule
10. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplasts and mitochondria is explained by
chemiosmotic theory
Munch's hypothesis (mass flow model)
relay pump theory of Godlewski
Cholodny Wont's model
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Seed Science and Technology

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Seed science and Technology’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Artificial seed

1. Difference between seed and grain is
seed processing
genetic purity
seed quality
cost

2. Seed drying is very important to maintain its
oil content
protein content
chemical composition
viability and vigour

3. Slow drying seed is
Cereals
grass
pulses
rapeseed and mustard

4. Germination is inhibited by
red light
blue light
UV light
IR light

5. The standard for germination % (min) for certified seed of gram is
75
80
85
90

6. T2 test colour of living tissues of seed changed to
Red
Blue
Yellow
green

7. Neurotoxin present in Lathyrus is
BoAB
BOAA
AOBA
AOAB

8. Solar treatment is used for
stem rust
Blast
Powery mildew
loose smut

9. For seed samples kept in an incubator for germination test, light is
always essential
never essential
not harmful
harmful

10. The two most important factors influencing the life span of seeds under storage are:
Rainfall and RH
seed size and moisture content
climate and temperature
relative humidity and temperature

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Seed science and Technology’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Artificial seed

1. Difference between seed and grain is
seed processing
genetic purity
seed quality
cost

2. Seed drying is very important to maintain its
oil content
protein content
chemical composition
viability and vigour

3. Slow drying seed is
Cereals
grass
pulses
rapeseed and mustard

4. Germination is inhibited by
red light
blue light
UV light
IR light

5. The standard for germination % (min) for certified seed of gram is
75
80
85
90

6. T2 test colour of living tissues of seed changed to
Red
Blue
Yellow
green

7. Neurotoxin present in Lathyrus is
BoAB
BOAA
AOBA
AOAB

8. Solar treatment is used for
stem rust
Blast
Powery mildew
loose smut

9. For seed samples kept in an incubator for germination test, light is
always essential
never essential
not harmful
harmful

10. The two most important factors influencing the life span of seeds under storage are:
Rainfall and RH
seed size and moisture content
climate and temperature
relative humidity and temperature

Score =
Correct answers:

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Multiple Choice Quiz on Pteridophytes

Cryptogams are plants which do not produce flowers  and fruits .The cryptogams include algae, fungi, lichen, bryophytes and pteridophytes. Except pteridophytes  all others are the lower cryptogams, as they do not possess true vascular  cryptogams, as they do not possess true vascular tissue for conduction. Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams. these are plants with well developed vascular system and they reproduce  by spores. In pteridophytes the real plant body is the sporophyte which is diploid and independent. Read more>>
Pteridophytes
1. Pteridophytes as a group differ from bryophytes in the
archegonia
motile sperms
presence of vascular tissue
alternation of generations

2. Which of the following group of plants were the first to become sporophytic?
bryophytes
pteridophytes
angiosperms
gymnosperms

3. Sporangia bearing leaf is called a
sorus
Sporophyll
Ramentum
Indusium

4. Heterospory is production of
diploid and tetraploid spores
sexual and asexual spores
large and small spores
haploid and diploid spores

5. Megasporophyll of Pteridophytes is comparable to which structure of angiosperms
Stamens
Ovule
Carpel
Microsporophyll

6. Seed habit originated in
Algae
Fungi
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes

7. Formation of sporophyte from a vegetative portion of prothallus without sexual fusion is called
Apogamy
Apospory
Apomixis
Apocarpy

8. Megasporophyll of Selaginella is comparable to which structure of angiosperms?
Carpel
Ovule
Stamen
Leaf

9. Fern stele is a
Protostele
Dictyostele
Siphonostele
None of these

10. Spore dissemination in many ferns is affected by
Indusium
Sorus
Annulus
Tapetum

Score =
Correct answers:

Cryptogams are plants which do not produce flowers  and fruits .The cryptogams include algae, fungi, lichen, bryophytes and pteridophytes. Except pteridophytes  all others are the lower cryptogams, as they do not possess true vascular  cryptogams, as they do not possess true vascular tissue for conduction. Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams. these are plants with well developed vascular system and they reproduce  by spores. In pteridophytes the real plant body is the sporophyte which is diploid and independent. Read more>>
Pteridophytes
1. Pteridophytes as a group differ from bryophytes in the
archegonia
motile sperms
presence of vascular tissue
alternation of generations

2. Which of the following group of plants were the first to become sporophytic?
bryophytes
pteridophytes
angiosperms
gymnosperms

3. Sporangia bearing leaf is called a
sorus
Sporophyll
Ramentum
Indusium

4. Heterospory is production of
diploid and tetraploid spores
sexual and asexual spores
large and small spores
haploid and diploid spores

5. Megasporophyll of Pteridophytes is comparable to which structure of angiosperms
Stamens
Ovule
Carpel
Microsporophyll

6. Seed habit originated in
Algae
Fungi
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes

7. Formation of sporophyte from a vegetative portion of prothallus without sexual fusion is called
Apogamy
Apospory
Apomixis
Apocarpy

8. Megasporophyll of Selaginella is comparable to which structure of angiosperms?
Carpel
Ovule
Stamen
Leaf

9. Fern stele is a
Protostele
Dictyostele
Siphonostele
None of these

10. Spore dissemination in many ferns is affected by
Indusium
Sorus
Annulus
Tapetum

Score =
Correct answers:

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Multiple Choice Quiz on Animal Tissues

The basic structural and functional unit of life is the cell. As a building is constructed with several bricks, the body of an organism is made up of numerous cells. Cells may vary widely in shape and size. There are about 200 different types of specializes cells in the human body. All groups of cells which have the same origin, structure and function are called the tissues. For example: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue and nerve tissue.

1. Pseudo stratified epithelium is present in
trachea
larynx
nephron
urinary bladder
2. In a fibrous connective tissue, the matrix is produced by the
mast cells
wandering cells
fibroblasts
plasma cells
3. Cells of cardiac muscles are
spindle shaped
branched
voluntary
non striated
4. Intercalated discs are seen in
smooth muscles
cardiac muscles
striated muscles
all the above
5. Glass like cartilage is
hyaline cartilage
calcified cartilage
fibro cartilage
elastic cartilage
6. Neurogila cells are found in the
Brain and ganglia
peripheral nervous system
spinal cord and ganglia
central nervous system
7. The leucocyte which provides the antibodies in blood is
monocycte
lymphocyte
eosinophil
neutrophil
8. Which is the heterocrine gland?
ovary
testis
salivary gland
pancreas
9. The epithelium found in the urinary bladder is:
columnar epithelium
ciliated epithelium
stratified epithelium
transitional epithelium
10. Which of the following produces antibodies in blood?
neutrophil
eosinophil
lymphocyte
monocyte
Score =
Correct answers:
The basic structural and functional unit of life is the cell. As a building is constructed with several bricks, the body of an organism is made up of numerous cells. Cells may vary widely in shape and size. There are about 200 different types of specializes cells in the human body. All groups of cells which have the same origin, structure and function are called the tissues. For example: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue and nerve tissue.

1. Pseudo stratified epithelium is present in
trachea
larynx
nephron
urinary bladder
2. In a fibrous connective tissue, the matrix is produced by the
mast cells
wandering cells
fibroblasts
plasma cells
3. Cells of cardiac muscles are
spindle shaped
branched
voluntary
non striated
4. Intercalated discs are seen in
smooth muscles
cardiac muscles
striated muscles
all the above
5. Glass like cartilage is
hyaline cartilage
calcified cartilage
fibro cartilage
elastic cartilage
6. Neurogila cells are found in the
Brain and ganglia
peripheral nervous system
spinal cord and ganglia
central nervous system
7. The leucocyte which provides the antibodies in blood is
monocycte
lymphocyte
eosinophil
neutrophil
8. Which is the heterocrine gland?
ovary
testis
salivary gland
pancreas
9. The epithelium found in the urinary bladder is:
columnar epithelium
ciliated epithelium
stratified epithelium
transitional epithelium
10. Which of the following produces antibodies in blood?
neutrophil
eosinophil
lymphocyte
monocyte
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Digestive glands

Digestive glands are those glands which secrete digestive juices for the digestion of food. Digestive glands includes salivary gland; gastric gland; liver; pancreas and intestinal gland.
Types of digestive juices
1. Wharton's duct is the duct of
parotid gland
submaxillary gland
submandibular salivary gland
all of these
2. Ptyalin is absent in the saliva of
tigers and pigs
cows and buffaloes
pigs and cows
pigs and buffaloes
3. Prorennin is secreted by
Zymogen cells
sertoli cells
hepatocytes
islets of langerhans
4. Liver in our body stores
Vitamin D
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
all of these
5. Argentaffin cells are found in
pancreas
brunner's gland
internal ear
crypts of Lieberkuhn
6. Bilirubin and biliverdin are
bile salts
enzymes
bile pigments
none of these
7. Insulin and glucagon, synthesized by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, reach their target cells via the
blood
lymph
cystic duct
pancreatic duct
8. Which of the following is present in man but absent in frog?
salivary gland
adrenal gland
thyroid gland
pancreas
9. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrete
pepsinogen
trypsin
pepsin
chymotrypsin
10. Gall bladder is stimulated to pour bile by
secretion
enterokinase
enterogastron
cholecystokinin
Score =
Correct answers:
Digestive glands are those glands which secrete digestive juices for the digestion of food. Digestive glands includes salivary gland; gastric gland; liver; pancreas and intestinal gland.
Types of digestive juices
1. Wharton's duct is the duct of
parotid gland
submaxillary gland
submandibular salivary gland
all of these
2. Ptyalin is absent in the saliva of
tigers and pigs
cows and buffaloes
pigs and cows
pigs and buffaloes
3. Prorennin is secreted by
Zymogen cells
sertoli cells
hepatocytes
islets of langerhans
4. Liver in our body stores
Vitamin D
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
all of these
5. Argentaffin cells are found in
pancreas
brunner's gland
internal ear
crypts of Lieberkuhn
6. Bilirubin and biliverdin are
bile salts
enzymes
bile pigments
none of these
7. Insulin and glucagon, synthesized by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, reach their target cells via the
blood
lymph
cystic duct
pancreatic duct
8. Which of the following is present in man but absent in frog?
salivary gland
adrenal gland
thyroid gland
pancreas
9. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrete
pepsinogen
trypsin
pepsin
chymotrypsin
10. Gall bladder is stimulated to pour bile by
secretion
enterokinase
enterogastron
cholecystokinin
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Inflorescence

In angiosperms , the flower occur singly or in groups. When a flower arises singly it is called a solitary flower. A group of flowers are variously clustered together is called inflorescence. The inflorescence  may be divided into two main groups, they are racemose and cymose. Read more>>
inflorescence
1. When the flower appear to arise from a single point, the inflorescence is
capitulum
umbel
corymb
raceme
2. Verticellaster is a special type of
flower
seed
inflorescence
leaf modification
3. In Maize and banana, inflorescence is
spadix
spike
catkin
corymb
4. Ficus is an example of which kind of inflorescence?
raceme
hypanthodium
cyanthium
spike
5. When pedicillate, bisexual flowers are borne acropetallty, it is
head
spikelet
raceme
spike
6. The characteristic type of inflorescence in Corrindrum is
corymb
compound spike
compound capitulum
compound umbel
7. Coralla is infundibuliform in
Pea
Petunia
Sunflower
Solanum
8. The capitulum consists of
ray florets only
disc florets only
ray florets and disc florets
none of these
9. The ratio of female to male flowers is 1:infinity in
cyanthium
catkin
verticillaster
hypanthodium
10. Which inflorescence is of determinate growth?
raceme
spike
cyme
panicle
Score =
Correct answers:
In angiosperms , the flower occur singly or in groups. When a flower arises singly it is called a solitary flower. A group of flowers are variously clustered together is called inflorescence. The inflorescence  may be divided into two main groups, they are racemose and cymose. Read more>>
inflorescence
1. When the flower appear to arise from a single point, the inflorescence is
capitulum
umbel
corymb
raceme
2. Verticellaster is a special type of
flower
seed
inflorescence
leaf modification
3. In Maize and banana, inflorescence is
spadix
spike
catkin
corymb
4. Ficus is an example of which kind of inflorescence?
raceme
hypanthodium
cyanthium
spike
5. When pedicillate, bisexual flowers are borne acropetallty, it is
head
spikelet
raceme
spike
6. The characteristic type of inflorescence in Corrindrum is
corymb
compound spike
compound capitulum
compound umbel
7. Coralla is infundibuliform in
Pea
Petunia
Sunflower
Solanum
8. The capitulum consists of
ray florets only
disc florets only
ray florets and disc florets
none of these
9. The ratio of female to male flowers is 1:infinity in
cyanthium
catkin
verticillaster
hypanthodium
10. Which inflorescence is of determinate growth?
raceme
spike
cyme
panicle
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Plasma Membrane

Cell membrane is the ‘line of control’ of the factory of life "the cell". This living structure is responsible for keeping individuality and also acts as a barrier from unwanted intruders. Cell membrane has channels and receptors that allow efficient trafficking and communication. Read more>>

All cells are enclosed by a thin, film like Cell membranes, plasma lemma, biological membranes or biomembranes. The plasma membrane is a semipermeable (not everything can pass through) boundary between the cell and its environment. It is made up of lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. Functions of Plasma membrane Read more>>
1. Steroid hormones have receptors predominantly on
cell surface
cytoplasm
both cell surface and cytoplasm
inside nucleus only
2. The major interaction responsible for stabilizing plasma membrane
hydrophilic interactions
ionic bonds
covalent bonds
hydrophobic interactions
3. The organelles involved in protein transport
ER and Golgi
ER and mitochondria
Golgi and mitochondria
lysosomes and golgi
4. The role of carbohydrates in cell membrane
cell adhesion
cell-cell recognition
assisting transport across cell membrane
cell storage reserve
5. All hormones can cross plasma membrane except
Estrogen
insulin
progesterone
thyroxine
6. The major biomolecule responsible for selective uptake of materials across plasma membrane
Carbohydrate
protein
lipids
phospholipids
7. All the following substance pass through cell membrane except
O2
H2O
CO2
H+
8. At physiological pH increase in cholesterol level
increases fluidity
decreases fluidity
no change in fluidity
none of the above
9. The longer the fatty acid chain, fluidity of the lipid bi layer
increases
decreases
no change in fluidity
none of the above
10. The inner leaflets of erythrocytes has
sphingomyelin and phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanolamine.
sphingomyelin and phosphatidylserine
phosphatidyl serine and phosphatidylcholine
Score =
Correct answers:
Cell membrane is the ‘line of control’ of the factory of life "the cell". This living structure is responsible for keeping individuality and also acts as a barrier from unwanted intruders. Cell membrane has channels and receptors that allow efficient trafficking and communication. Read more>>

All cells are enclosed by a thin, film like Cell membranes, plasma lemma, biological membranes or biomembranes. The plasma membrane is a semipermeable (not everything can pass through) boundary between the cell and its environment. It is made up of lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. Functions of Plasma membrane Read more>>
1. Steroid hormones have receptors predominantly on
cell surface
cytoplasm
both cell surface and cytoplasm
inside nucleus only
2. The major interaction responsible for stabilizing plasma membrane
hydrophilic interactions
ionic bonds
covalent bonds
hydrophobic interactions
3. The organelles involved in protein transport
ER and Golgi
ER and mitochondria
Golgi and mitochondria
lysosomes and golgi
4. The role of carbohydrates in cell membrane
cell adhesion
cell-cell recognition
assisting transport across cell membrane
cell storage reserve
5. All hormones can cross plasma membrane except
Estrogen
insulin
progesterone
thyroxine
6. The major biomolecule responsible for selective uptake of materials across plasma membrane
Carbohydrate
protein
lipids
phospholipids
7. All the following substance pass through cell membrane except
O2
H2O
CO2
H+
8. At physiological pH increase in cholesterol level
increases fluidity
decreases fluidity
no change in fluidity
none of the above
9. The longer the fatty acid chain, fluidity of the lipid bi layer
increases
decreases
no change in fluidity
none of the above
10. The inner leaflets of erythrocytes has
sphingomyelin and phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanolamine.
sphingomyelin and phosphatidylserine
phosphatidyl serine and phosphatidylcholine
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Global Warming

Greenhouse effect and ozone depletion are the two major environmental issues. The increased amounts of green house gases in the atmosphere are affecting the global climate. The climate change will increase threats to human health. Global warming will lead to changes in weather patterns and ocean currents.
Practice Test on Global Warming

1. Checking of re radiating heat by atmosphere carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, dust is known as
ozone layer
green house effect
radioactive effect
solar effect
2. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces
fluorides
ozone
sulphur oxide
carbon monoxide
3. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increase green house effect as carbon dioxide
precipitates dust in the atmosphere
is opaque to infrared rays
reduce atmospheric pressure
is not opaque to infrared rays
4. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the earth's atmosphere:
carbon dioxide
methane
nitrous oxide
water vapor
5. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?
water vapor
carbon-dioxide
ozone
methane
6. Which of the following gases are mainly responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect in the earth's atmosphere?
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
water vapor and carbon dioxide
ozone and oxygen
oxygen and nitrogen
7. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?
more extreme weather patterns
retreat of glaciers
an increase of UVB radiation
sea level rise
8. Ozonospere is mainly depleted by
excess CO
excess CO2
CFCs
ozone
9. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by
absorbing solar radiation
blocking ultraviolet-B radiation
absorbing earthshine in the 10 micron region
destroying ozone, which cools the Earth
10. Which of the following processes acts to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
burning fossil fuels
photosynthesis
deforestation
lightning
Score =
Correct answers:
Greenhouse effect and ozone depletion are the two major environmental issues. The increased amounts of green house gases in the atmosphere are affecting the global climate. The climate change will increase threats to human health. Global warming will lead to changes in weather patterns and ocean currents.
Practice Test on Global Warming

1. Checking of re radiating heat by atmosphere carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, dust is known as
ozone layer
green house effect
radioactive effect
solar effect
2. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces
fluorides
ozone
sulphur oxide
carbon monoxide
3. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increase green house effect as carbon dioxide
precipitates dust in the atmosphere
is opaque to infrared rays
reduce atmospheric pressure
is not opaque to infrared rays
4. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the earth's atmosphere:
carbon dioxide
methane
nitrous oxide
water vapor
5. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?
water vapor
carbon-dioxide
ozone
methane
6. Which of the following gases are mainly responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect in the earth's atmosphere?
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
water vapor and carbon dioxide
ozone and oxygen
oxygen and nitrogen
7. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?
more extreme weather patterns
retreat of glaciers
an increase of UVB radiation
sea level rise
8. Ozonospere is mainly depleted by
excess CO
excess CO2
CFCs
ozone
9. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by
absorbing solar radiation
blocking ultraviolet-B radiation
absorbing earthshine in the 10 micron region
destroying ozone, which cools the Earth
10. Which of the following processes acts to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
burning fossil fuels
photosynthesis
deforestation
lightning
Score =
Correct answers:
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