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Immunology Multiple Choice Quiz on Antibodies

This immunology quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘Antibodies’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The basic unit of immunoglobulin (Ig) is composed of:
Two identical heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two identical light chains
Two identical heavy and two identical light chains
2. IgE
is present in high concentration in serum
is bound together by J chain
bind to mast cells through its Fab region
differ from IgG antibody because of its different H chains
3. The Fab portions of Ig
contains the J chain
mediates biological effector functions of Ab molecules
binds to an Fc receptor
contains the idiotype of the Ig
4. Ig heavy chains are
not glycosylated
not important to binding of antigen
expressed by T cells
encoded by a constant region exon, variable exon, diversity exon and joining exon
5. IgA
crosses the placenta
is involved in hay fever
is present in saliva and milk
activates complement by the classical pathway
6. Human IgM
is largely restricted to the circulation
is the antibody produced by high affinity plasma cells
protects mucosal surfaces
crosses the placenta
7. The Fc region of antibody
generally confers biological activity on the various molecules
contains both heavy and light chains
is not important for triggering of IgE mediated hypersensitivity
is not a requirement for placental transmission
8. The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for:
C1q fixation
Binding to macrophages
Binding to antigen
Binding to Fc receptors
9. Cells destined to become IgA producing plasma cells do not
produce J Chain
produce secretory component
home to any mucosal area
migrate from mucosal areas on stimulation with antigen
10. Cleavage of IgG by Papain produces
F(ab')2
Fab
Isolated heavy chains
Isolated light chains
Score =
Correct answers:
This immunology quiz is designed to assess your knowledge in ‘Antibodies’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. The basic unit of immunoglobulin (Ig) is composed of:
Two identical heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two different light chains
Two different heavy and two identical light chains
Two identical heavy and two identical light chains
2. IgE
is present in high concentration in serum
is bound together by J chain
bind to mast cells through its Fab region
differ from IgG antibody because of its different H chains
3. The Fab portions of Ig
contains the J chain
mediates biological effector functions of Ab molecules
binds to an Fc receptor
contains the idiotype of the Ig
4. Ig heavy chains are
not glycosylated
not important to binding of antigen
expressed by T cells
encoded by a constant region exon, variable exon, diversity exon and joining exon
5. IgA
crosses the placenta
is involved in hay fever
is present in saliva and milk
activates complement by the classical pathway
6. Human IgM
is largely restricted to the circulation
is the antibody produced by high affinity plasma cells
protects mucosal surfaces
crosses the placenta
7. The Fc region of antibody
generally confers biological activity on the various molecules
contains both heavy and light chains
is not important for triggering of IgE mediated hypersensitivity
is not a requirement for placental transmission
8. The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for:
C1q fixation
Binding to macrophages
Binding to antigen
Binding to Fc receptors
9. Cells destined to become IgA producing plasma cells do not
produce J Chain
produce secretory component
home to any mucosal area
migrate from mucosal areas on stimulation with antigen
10. Cleavage of IgG by Papain produces
F(ab')2
Fab
Isolated heavy chains
Isolated light chains
Score =
Correct answers:
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Immunology Quiz on Innate Immunity


1. Innate immunity
These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of any infection.
All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is correct about Macrophages
produce nitric oxide
are main immune cells for dealing with viruses
circulate in blood stream
are first lecukocytes to arrive at the site of a skin infection
3. Molecule directly involved in NK cell mediated killing include
complement
superoxide
granzyme A and B
None of these
4. Tears contain
IgG
IgA
Lysozyme
all of these
5. Dendritic cells are characterized by
their ability to release histamine
their interface between the innate and adaptive immune systems
expression of CD3
expression of IgM molecules
6. Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
inflammation
mucous membrane
skin
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
7. Opsonins include
magainins
C9
IFNgamma
C3b
8. Phagocytosis
is important in bacterial infections
is a process that does not involve energy
is carried by cells of the adaptive immune system
results in division of the cell
9. Both basophils and mast cells
release histamine
are found primarily in lymph nodes
circulate in blood stream
are phagocytic
10. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) include which of the following?
Unmethylated CpG sequences
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Lectin like molecules
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
Score =
Correct answers:

1. Innate immunity
These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of any infection.
All of the above
2. Which of the following statement is correct about Macrophages
produce nitric oxide
are main immune cells for dealing with viruses
circulate in blood stream
are first lecukocytes to arrive at the site of a skin infection
3. Molecule directly involved in NK cell mediated killing include
complement
superoxide
granzyme A and B
None of these
4. Tears contain
IgG
IgA
Lysozyme
all of these
5. Dendritic cells are characterized by
their ability to release histamine
their interface between the innate and adaptive immune systems
expression of CD3
expression of IgM molecules
6. Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
inflammation
mucous membrane
skin
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
7. Opsonins include
magainins
C9
IFNgamma
C3b
8. Phagocytosis
is important in bacterial infections
is a process that does not involve energy
is carried by cells of the adaptive immune system
results in division of the cell
9. Both basophils and mast cells
release histamine
are found primarily in lymph nodes
circulate in blood stream
are phagocytic
10. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) include which of the following?
Unmethylated CpG sequences
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Lectin like molecules
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
Score =
Correct answers:
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Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biodiversity and Conservation’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

1. Species with limited distribution in a particular geographical area is referred as
endangered
vulnerable
endemic
threatened
2. The term biodiversity hotspot was coined by
Norman Myers
Ernst Mayr
Ernst haeckel
Walter Mayr
3. A keystone species is one that
is vulnerable to extinction
is with restricted geographic distribution
strongly influences the structure and function of an ecological community
all of these
4. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, the most important criteria include
high biodiversity
high degree of endemism
threatened
both b and c
5. Ginkgo biloba is an example for
continental endemics
endemic species
relic endemism
regional endemism
6. Which of the following is the most important cause for the loss of biodiversity?
habitat destruction
Introduction of Exotic species
Environmental pollution
Urbanization and industrialization
7. Which of the following is an examples of endangered species?
Sambar
Desert fox
Spotted deer
Asiatic Lion
8. Species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause is called
Keystone species
Sibling species
Flagship species
Pioneer species
9. Species that are selected for conservation because the conservation and protection of these species indirectly affects the conservation and protection of other species within their ecosystem is referred as
Umbrella species
Pioneer species
keystone species
Iconic species
10. Species or group of species chosen as an indicator for the state of an ecosystem is called
priority species
Indicator species
Signal species
Point species
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biodiversity and Conservation’.Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biodiversity and Conservation Quiz

1. Species with limited distribution in a particular geographical area is referred as
endangered
vulnerable
endemic
threatened
2. The term biodiversity hotspot was coined by
Norman Myers
Ernst Mayr
Ernst haeckel
Walter Mayr
3. A keystone species is one that
is vulnerable to extinction
is with restricted geographic distribution
strongly influences the structure and function of an ecological community
all of these
4. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, the most important criteria include
high biodiversity
high degree of endemism
threatened
both b and c
5. Ginkgo biloba is an example for
continental endemics
endemic species
relic endemism
regional endemism
6. Which of the following is the most important cause for the loss of biodiversity?
habitat destruction
Introduction of Exotic species
Environmental pollution
Urbanization and industrialization
7. Which of the following is an examples of endangered species?
Sambar
Desert fox
Spotted deer
Asiatic Lion
8. Species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause is called
Keystone species
Sibling species
Flagship species
Pioneer species
9. Species that are selected for conservation because the conservation and protection of these species indirectly affects the conservation and protection of other species within their ecosystem is referred as
Umbrella species
Pioneer species
keystone species
Iconic species
10. Species or group of species chosen as an indicator for the state of an ecosystem is called
priority species
Indicator species
Signal species
Point species
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Darwin's theory of Evolution'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection
1. Which of the following is the most critical factor for evolution according to Darwin?
mutation
migration
natural selection
genetic drift
2. Darwin mentioned an island as the “living laboratory of evolutionary samples”. Which is that island?
Madagascar
Galapagos
Macau
Grand Cayman
3. The co-contributer of Theory of organic evolution by natural selection is
August Weismann
Alfred Wallace
J D Hooker
Earnest Haeckal
4. Which is the book in which Darwin published the theory of evolution?
“The evolution of species”
“The origin of species by means of natural selection
“On the evolution of Species by means of natural selection”
On the Origin of Species by means of natural selection
5.In Darwinian theory of Natural selection ‘Prodigality of production’ refers to
over production of species
struggle for existence
resource limitation in over production
all of these
6. According to Darwin, all these factors leads to struggle for existence except
Exotic species introduction
Intra-specific competition
Inter-specific competition
Environmental changes
7.According to Darwin, Natural selection mediated speciation is effected by
small discontinuous variation
small continuous heritable variation
sudden heritable variation
sudden continuous heritable variation
8.Darwin proposed mechanism of speciation is by
anagenesis
sympatric speciation
allopatric speciation
cladogenesis
9.Darwins theory of natural selection was primarily based on his observation during his 5 years long voyage in the survey ship named
HMS Protector
HMS Scott
HMS Beagle
Royal Research Ship
10.Darwin got the idea of natural selection while observing variation of species in different islands. Which is the most important species that helped him to propose the theory of natural selection?
Giant Tortoises
Finches
sea lions
sharks
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Darwin's theory of Evolution'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Darwin's Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection
1. Which of the following is the most critical factor for evolution according to Darwin?
mutation
migration
natural selection
genetic drift
2. Darwin mentioned an island as the “living laboratory of evolutionary samples”. Which is that island?
Madagascar
Galapagos
Macau
Grand Cayman
3. The co-contributer of Theory of organic evolution by natural selection is
August Weismann
Alfred Wallace
J D Hooker
Earnest Haeckal
4. Which is the book in which Darwin published the theory of evolution?
“The evolution of species”
“The origin of species by means of natural selection
“On the evolution of Species by means of natural selection”
On the Origin of Species by means of natural selection
5.In Darwinian theory of Natural selection ‘Prodigality of production’ refers to
over production of species
struggle for existence
resource limitation in over production
all of these
6. According to Darwin, all these factors leads to struggle for existence except
Exotic species introduction
Intra-specific competition
Inter-specific competition
Environmental changes
7.According to Darwin, Natural selection mediated speciation is effected by
small discontinuous variation
small continuous heritable variation
sudden heritable variation
sudden continuous heritable variation
8.Darwin proposed mechanism of speciation is by
anagenesis
sympatric speciation
allopatric speciation
cladogenesis
9.Darwins theory of natural selection was primarily based on his observation during his 5 years long voyage in the survey ship named
HMS Protector
HMS Scott
HMS Beagle
Royal Research Ship
10.Darwin got the idea of natural selection while observing variation of species in different islands. Which is the most important species that helped him to propose the theory of natural selection?
Giant Tortoises
Finches
sea lions
sharks
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on Molecular Genetics - DNA and Evolution

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Molecular Genetics'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the bonding examples below is NOT possible?
a DNA adenine to an RNA thymine
a DNA guanine to an RNA cytosine
a DNA adenine to an RNA uracil
a DNA adenine to a DNA thymine
a DNA guanine to a DNA cytosine
2. For the DNA strand 5ACCGTGACATTG3, the correct compliment DNA would be
5TGGCACTGTAAC3
3UGGCAGUGUAAC5
5ACCGUGACAUUG3
3TCCGAGTGTAAC5
3TGGCACTGTAAC5
3. The portion of the DNA molecule that can vary is its
deoxyribose
base
deoxyribose
phosphate
all of these
4. Which of the following replaces guanine in RNA?
adenine
uracil
thymine
cytosine
none of the these
5. An mRNA is 429 nucleotides long. The number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain formed from this mRNA is
141
142
143
144
145
6. Which of the following statements is true about mutations?
generally lethal
Rates tend to be very high in most populations.
irreversible
source of genetic variation
Only certain gene locations are affected.
7. In the illustration below, the strand with an (*) is the
Okazaki fragment.
template
promoter
leading strand
lagging strand
8. Darwin’s Natural Selection includes all of the following EXCEPT
Organisms produce more offspring than can survive
Variation can be due to mutations
Some organisms will be more fit to survive than other
Not all organisms may survive, due to competition
The difference in survivability between organisms may be due to variation
9. Which of the following is a semi-conservative process?
crossing over
transcription
translation
non-disjunction
DNA replication
10. Which of the following is NOT consistent with Griffith’s experiments?
injected S-strain: mouse dies
injected R-strain: mouse lives
injected heat-killed S-strain: mouse lives
injected mixture of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain: mouse lives
injected mixture of R-strain and live S-strain: mouse dies
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Molecular Genetics'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the bonding examples below is NOT possible?
a DNA adenine to an RNA thymine
a DNA guanine to an RNA cytosine
a DNA adenine to an RNA uracil
a DNA adenine to a DNA thymine
a DNA guanine to a DNA cytosine
2. For the DNA strand 5ACCGTGACATTG3, the correct compliment DNA would be
5TGGCACTGTAAC3
3UGGCAGUGUAAC5
5ACCGUGACAUUG3
3TCCGAGTGTAAC5
3TGGCACTGTAAC5
3. The portion of the DNA molecule that can vary is its
deoxyribose
base
deoxyribose
phosphate
all of these
4. Which of the following replaces guanine in RNA?
adenine
uracil
thymine
cytosine
none of the these
5. An mRNA is 429 nucleotides long. The number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain formed from this mRNA is
141
142
143
144
145
6. Which of the following statements is true about mutations?
generally lethal
Rates tend to be very high in most populations.
irreversible
source of genetic variation
Only certain gene locations are affected.
7. In the illustration below, the strand with an (*) is the
Okazaki fragment.
template
promoter
leading strand
lagging strand
8. Darwin’s Natural Selection includes all of the following EXCEPT
Organisms produce more offspring than can survive
Variation can be due to mutations
Some organisms will be more fit to survive than other
Not all organisms may survive, due to competition
The difference in survivability between organisms may be due to variation
9. Which of the following is a semi-conservative process?
crossing over
transcription
translation
non-disjunction
DNA replication
10. Which of the following is NOT consistent with Griffith’s experiments?
injected S-strain: mouse dies
injected R-strain: mouse lives
injected heat-killed S-strain: mouse lives
injected mixture of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain: mouse lives
injected mixture of R-strain and live S-strain: mouse dies
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Protozoa (Kingdom Protista)

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Kingdom Protista'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Multiple Choice Quiz on Protozoa

1. The slime moulds are characterized by the presence of
elaters
pseudoelaters
capillitium
all of these
2. In diatoms auxospores help in
spore formation
reproduction
metabolism
growth
3. Bioluminescence is exhibited by
Chlorella
Ceratium
Chlamydomonas
Hirudinaria
4. Auxosspores and hormogonia are formed, respectively
some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria
several diatoms and a few diatoms
some cyanobacteria and many datoms
5. Euglenoids species that have chlorophyll are
facultative autotrophs
facultative heterotrophs
obligate heterotrophs
obligate autrophs
6. Which is correct?
slime moulds are haploid
protozoan lack cellwall
dinoflagellates are immotile
pellicle is absent in euglena
7. A dinoflagellate where mesokaryon does not occur in somatic cells
Gonyaulax
Peridinium
Noctiluca
Ceratium
8. Photosynthetic protists belong to
zooflagellates
bacillariophyceae
bacillariophyceae, euglenophyceae and dinophyceae
bacillariophyceae and Euglenophyceae
9. Percentage of plantkton constituted by protistans is
70%
80%
90%
95%
10. Kingdom Protista includes
life cycle showing zygotic meiosis
life cycle showing gametic meiosis
life cycle showing sporic meiosis
both zygotic and gametic meiosis
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Kingdom Protista'. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Multiple Choice Quiz on Protozoa

1. The slime moulds are characterized by the presence of
elaters
pseudoelaters
capillitium
all of these
2. In diatoms auxospores help in
spore formation
reproduction
metabolism
growth
3. Bioluminescence is exhibited by
Chlorella
Ceratium
Chlamydomonas
Hirudinaria
4. Auxosspores and hormogonia are formed, respectively
some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria
several diatoms and a few diatoms
some cyanobacteria and many datoms
5. Euglenoids species that have chlorophyll are
facultative autotrophs
facultative heterotrophs
obligate heterotrophs
obligate autrophs
6. Which is correct?
slime moulds are haploid
protozoan lack cellwall
dinoflagellates are immotile
pellicle is absent in euglena
7. A dinoflagellate where mesokaryon does not occur in somatic cells
Gonyaulax
Peridinium
Noctiluca
Ceratium
8. Photosynthetic protists belong to
zooflagellates
bacillariophyceae
bacillariophyceae, euglenophyceae and dinophyceae
bacillariophyceae and Euglenophyceae
9. Percentage of plantkton constituted by protistans is
70%
80%
90%
95%
10. Kingdom Protista includes
life cycle showing zygotic meiosis
life cycle showing gametic meiosis
life cycle showing sporic meiosis
both zygotic and gametic meiosis
Score =
Correct answers:
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Mitosis and Meiosis Worksheet on Chromosome and Chromatid number (DNA molecule)

This worksheet is designed to check your understanding about the change in chromosome and chromatid number in different stages of mitosis and meiosis. If you find any difficulty, refer this post
Mitosis and Meiosis Worksheet on Chromosome and Chromatid number (DNA molecule)
For answer see this post

Number of chromosomes and chromatids in each stage of Mitosis and Meiosis PDF

This worksheet is designed to check your understanding about the change in chromosome and chromatid number in different stages of mitosis and meiosis. If you find any difficulty, refer this post
Mitosis and Meiosis Worksheet on Chromosome and Chromatid number (DNA molecule)
For answer see this post

Number of chromosomes and chromatids in each stage of Mitosis and Meiosis PDF

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Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Systematics

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Plant Systematics"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Plant Systematics

1. The term 'taxonomy' was coined by
Linnaeus
A P de Candolle
Turill
Julian Huxley
2. New name of family 'Guttiferae'
Clusiaceae
Apiaceae
Umbelliferae
Compositae
3. John Ray gave
Biological concept
Typological concept
Species concept
none of these
4. Specimen used for original publication by the author is
Syntype
Isotype
Holotype
Lectotype
5. System of classification used by Linnaeus was
natural system
artificial system
phylogenetic system
none of these
6. Two similar holotypes are called
Syntype
Lectotype
Isotype
Holotype
7. Size of herbarium sheet standard
41.25 x 28.75 cms
21.25 x 28.75 cms
28.25 x 28.75 cms
31.25 x 28.75 cms
8. Binomial system of nomenclature for plants is effective from
1.5.1753
5.8.1758
5.7.1758
1.5.1573
9. Karyotaxonomy is based on
organic evolution
chemotaxonomy
morphological characters
number of chromosomes
10. Which is correct?
MANGIFERA INDICA
mangifera indica
Mangifera indica
Mangifera Indica
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Plant Systematics"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Plant Systematics

1. The term 'taxonomy' was coined by
Linnaeus
A P de Candolle
Turill
Julian Huxley
2. New name of family 'Guttiferae'
Clusiaceae
Apiaceae
Umbelliferae
Compositae
3. John Ray gave
Biological concept
Typological concept
Species concept
none of these
4. Specimen used for original publication by the author is
Syntype
Isotype
Holotype
Lectotype
5. System of classification used by Linnaeus was
natural system
artificial system
phylogenetic system
none of these
6. Two similar holotypes are called
Syntype
Lectotype
Isotype
Holotype
7. Size of herbarium sheet standard
41.25 x 28.75 cms
21.25 x 28.75 cms
28.25 x 28.75 cms
31.25 x 28.75 cms
8. Binomial system of nomenclature for plants is effective from
1.5.1753
5.8.1758
5.7.1758
1.5.1573
9. Karyotaxonomy is based on
organic evolution
chemotaxonomy
morphological characters
number of chromosomes
10. Which is correct?
MANGIFERA INDICA
mangifera indica
Mangifera indica
Mangifera Indica
Score =
Correct answers:
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Photosynthesis Practice Test

This Photosynthesis interactive practice test is designed to assess your deep understanding about 'PhotosynthesisChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers. See the short notes on Steps in Photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis Practice Test
1. In photosynthesis, light energy is converted to
mechanical energy
electrical enrgy
chemical energy
thermal energy
2. The principal pigment in plants, algae and cyanobacteria which serves as reaction center molecule is
chlorophyll a
chlorophyll a and b
chlorophyll b
phycocyanin
3. Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from
CO2
H2O
Chlorophyll
Both a and b
4. The site of light dependent and light independent reaction of photosynthesis is
chloroplast and mitochondria respectively
cytoplasm and chloroplast respectively
thylakoid membrane and stroma respectively
grana and mitochondria respectively
5. In light dependent reaction of photosynthesis, energy of sunlight is trapped and used for the synthesis of
glucose
ATP and NADH
ATP and NADPH
glucose and ATP
6. How many CO2 molecule is required to make one glucose molecule in Calvin cycle?
2
4
6
8
7. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electron deficiency in PSII is made up by the electrons supplied by
NADPH
H2O splitting
CO2 splitting
both b and c
8. How many ATP and NADPH is utilized for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose?
18 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 6 NADPH
18 ATP and 18 NADPH
9. In light reaction, ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is favored by
low concentration of H2O in stroma and high concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
high concentration of H2O in stroma and low concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
high concentration of H+ in stroma and low concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
low concentration of H+ in stroma and high concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
10. The most abundant protein on earth is RUBISCO which catalyses the reaction between
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and O2
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and CO2
Ribulose 1,3-biphosphate and CO2
Score =
Correct answers:

This Photosynthesis interactive practice test is designed to assess your deep understanding about 'PhotosynthesisChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers. See the short notes on Steps in Photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis Practice Test
1. In photosynthesis, light energy is converted to
mechanical energy
electrical enrgy
chemical energy
thermal energy
2. The principal pigment in plants, algae and cyanobacteria which serves as reaction center molecule is
chlorophyll a
chlorophyll a and b
chlorophyll b
phycocyanin
3. Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from
CO2
H2O
Chlorophyll
Both a and b
4. The site of light dependent and light independent reaction of photosynthesis is
chloroplast and mitochondria respectively
cytoplasm and chloroplast respectively
thylakoid membrane and stroma respectively
grana and mitochondria respectively
5. In light dependent reaction of photosynthesis, energy of sunlight is trapped and used for the synthesis of
glucose
ATP and NADH
ATP and NADPH
glucose and ATP
6. How many CO2 molecule is required to make one glucose molecule in Calvin cycle?
2
4
6
8
7. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electron deficiency in PSII is made up by the electrons supplied by
NADPH
H2O splitting
CO2 splitting
both b and c
8. How many ATP and NADPH is utilized for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose?
18 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 12 NADPH
12 ATP and 6 NADPH
18 ATP and 18 NADPH
9. In light reaction, ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is favored by
low concentration of H2O in stroma and high concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
high concentration of H2O in stroma and low concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
high concentration of H+ in stroma and low concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
low concentration of H+ in stroma and high concentration of H+ in thylakoid lumen
10. The most abundant protein on earth is RUBISCO which catalyses the reaction between
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and O2
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
Ribulose 1,5-biphosphate and CO2
Ribulose 1,3-biphosphate and CO2
Score =
Correct answers:

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DNA Replication Diagram Quiz

This labelled diagram quiz on DNA replication is designed to assess your basic knowledge in DNA replicationChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers. See the short notes on Steps in DNA replication.
DNA Replication Diagram Quiz
1. Name the protein labelled 1 which is involved in preventing the renaturation of separated strands during DNA replication
SSB
DnaA
Helicase
primase
2. Once the initiator protein, DnaA binds to the ori, the enzyme that unwinds DNA; labelled 2 is
polymerase
ligase
helicase
nuclease
3. The DNA directed RNA polymerase labelled 3 that is required to initiate strand synthesis by forming a primer with free 3'OH end is
polymerase
DNA primase
initiator enzyme
primase
4. The primer synthesized by primase enzyme labelled 4 is a
DNA primer
RNA primer
both DNA and RNA
Some times RNA sometimes DNA
5. Identify the enzyme labelled 5 which relax the supercoiling stress induced by unwinding of helicase by making temporary single stranded nicks is
primase
topoisomerase I
topoisomerase II
ligase
6. In prokaryotes, the elongation of leading stand is carried out by the enzyme labelled 6 is
RNA polymerase
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
Primase
7. During DNA replication, lagging strand is synthesized as short fragments of nucleotides; labelled 7 is
primer
Okazaki fragment
klenow fragment
lagging fragment
8. RNA primers of lagging strand is replaced with DNA by the enzyme labelled 8 is
proof reading enzyme
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
reverse transcriptase
9. Identify the enzyme labelled 9 called as molecular glue that joins the okazaki fragments by forming phosphodiester bond is
ligase
helicase
primase
phosphodiesterase
10. During DNA replication, the strand that is synthesized continuously labelled 10 is called the
continuous strand
leading strand
uninterrupted strand
ongoing strand
11. The strand labelled 11 is formed of many short fragments which are synthesized discontinuously is the
interrupted strand
broken strand
disconnected strand
lagging strand
Score =
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This labelled diagram quiz on DNA replication is designed to assess your basic knowledge in DNA replicationChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers. See the short notes on Steps in DNA replication.
DNA Replication Diagram Quiz
1. Name the protein labelled 1 which is involved in preventing the renaturation of separated strands during DNA replication
SSB
DnaA
Helicase
primase
2. Once the initiator protein, DnaA binds to the ori, the enzyme that unwinds DNA; labelled 2 is
polymerase
ligase
helicase
nuclease
3. The DNA directed RNA polymerase labelled 3 that is required to initiate strand synthesis by forming a primer with free 3'OH end is
polymerase
DNA primase
initiator enzyme
primase
4. The primer synthesized by primase enzyme labelled 4 is a
DNA primer
RNA primer
both DNA and RNA
Some times RNA sometimes DNA
5. Identify the enzyme labelled 5 which relax the supercoiling stress induced by unwinding of helicase by making temporary single stranded nicks is
primase
topoisomerase I
topoisomerase II
ligase
6. In prokaryotes, the elongation of leading stand is carried out by the enzyme labelled 6 is
RNA polymerase
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
Primase
7. During DNA replication, lagging strand is synthesized as short fragments of nucleotides; labelled 7 is
primer
Okazaki fragment
klenow fragment
lagging fragment
8. RNA primers of lagging strand is replaced with DNA by the enzyme labelled 8 is
proof reading enzyme
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
reverse transcriptase
9. Identify the enzyme labelled 9 called as molecular glue that joins the okazaki fragments by forming phosphodiester bond is
ligase
helicase
primase
phosphodiesterase
10. During DNA replication, the strand that is synthesized continuously labelled 10 is called the
continuous strand
leading strand
uninterrupted strand
ongoing strand
11. The strand labelled 11 is formed of many short fragments which are synthesized discontinuously is the
interrupted strand
broken strand
disconnected strand
lagging strand
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Quiz on Amino acid Properties

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge about ‘amino acid properties’ with questions like which of the amino acid is a alpha helix breaker? Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amino acid Properties
1. Which of the the following amino acid is a 'alpha helix breaker'?
alanine
phenyl alanine
proline
histidine
2. Generally, naturally occurring amino acids are
D type
L type
Both D and L type
none of these
3. Which of the following amino acid is a good buffer at pH 7?
glycine
histidine
arginine
asparagine
4. Neurotransmitter serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid
glycine
tryptophan
valine
histidine
5. The most abundant amino acid in collagen is
proline
glycine
hydroxyproline
arginine
6. Melanin is synthesized by the oxidation of amino acid
tyrosine
threonine
phenylalanine
tryptophan
7. Gamma-Amino Butyric acid (GABA, inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain is synthesized from
aspartate
glutamate
asparagine
serine
8. Amino acids that does not undergo transamination include
lysine
threonine
proline
all of the these
9. Which of the following statement is false about glycine?
simplest amino acid
optically active
inhibitory neurotransmitter
alpha helix breaker
10. All the following amino acids are involved in glycosylation except
serine
threonine
asparagine
alanine
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge about ‘amino acid properties’ with questions like which of the amino acid is a alpha helix breaker? Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amino acid Properties
1. Which of the the following amino acid is a 'alpha helix breaker'?
alanine
phenyl alanine
proline
histidine
2. Generally, naturally occurring amino acids are
D type
L type
Both D and L type
none of these
3. Which of the following amino acid is a good buffer at pH 7?
glycine
histidine
arginine
asparagine
4. Neurotransmitter serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid
glycine
tryptophan
valine
histidine
5. The most abundant amino acid in collagen is
proline
glycine
hydroxyproline
arginine
6. Melanin is synthesized by the oxidation of amino acid
tyrosine
threonine
phenylalanine
tryptophan
7. Gamma-Amino Butyric acid (GABA, inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain is synthesized from
aspartate
glutamate
asparagine
serine
8. Amino acids that does not undergo transamination include
lysine
threonine
proline
all of the these
9. Which of the following statement is false about glycine?
simplest amino acid
optically active
inhibitory neurotransmitter
alpha helix breaker
10. All the following amino acids are involved in glycosylation except
serine
threonine
asparagine
alanine
Score =
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Diagram Quiz on Bacteriophage

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘bacteriophage’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Bacteriophage diagram quiz
1. Viruses that attack bacteria are called
viroids
bacterecides
bacteriophages
prions
2. The genetic material of the phage is present in this region. The region labelled 1 is the
tail region
head region
head and neck region
collar region
3. The region labelled 2 is involved in injecting genetic material to the host. The region is
tail region
head region
head and neck region
collar region
4. The region labelled 3 is where
DNA is present
protein is present
RNA is present
Either DNA or RNA is present
5. The genetic material of the phage is surrounded by, labelled 4 is
protein coat called virion
protein coat called capsid
glycoprotein envelope
glycolipid envelope
6. The region labelled 5 connects the head to the tail which is the
neck with collar
connector
tail plate
whiskers
7. In T4 phages, the structure labelled 6 has contractile proteins that injects genetic material to the host is
whiskers
collar
tail sheath
base plate
8. The structure labelled 7 that helps in the attachment of phage to the host which is the
base plate
tail plate
tail whiskers
pins
9. The structure labelled 8 attach to specific receptors on the bacterial cell. This structure that determines the host specificity of the phage is
tail plate
tail fibers
base plate
tail pins
10. The structure 7, 8 and 9 helps in attachment of phage to host surface. The structure labelled 9 is
tail hooks
tail pins
tail fibres
tail sheath
Score =
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This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘bacteriophage’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking ' Score'.  Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Bacteriophage diagram quiz
1. Viruses that attack bacteria are called
viroids
bacterecides
bacteriophages
prions
2. The genetic material of the phage is present in this region. The region labelled 1 is the
tail region
head region
head and neck region
collar region
3. The region labelled 2 is involved in injecting genetic material to the host. The region is
tail region
head region
head and neck region
collar region
4. The region labelled 3 is where
DNA is present
protein is present
RNA is present
Either DNA or RNA is present
5. The genetic material of the phage is surrounded by, labelled 4 is
protein coat called virion
protein coat called capsid
glycoprotein envelope
glycolipid envelope
6. The region labelled 5 connects the head to the tail which is the
neck with collar
connector
tail plate
whiskers
7. In T4 phages, the structure labelled 6 has contractile proteins that injects genetic material to the host is
whiskers
collar
tail sheath
base plate
8. The structure labelled 7 that helps in the attachment of phage to the host which is the
base plate
tail plate
tail whiskers
pins
9. The structure labelled 8 attach to specific receptors on the bacterial cell. This structure that determines the host specificity of the phage is
tail plate
tail fibers
base plate
tail pins
10. The structure 7, 8 and 9 helps in attachment of phage to host surface. The structure labelled 9 is
tail hooks
tail pins
tail fibres
tail sheath
Score =
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Diagram Quiz on Photosynthetic Pigments

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Photosynthetic Pigments"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
photosynthetic pigments structure quiz

1. The long hydrocarbon chain that forms the tail of Chlorophyll molecule labelled A is called the
pyrole tail
phytol tail
phenol tail
tetrapyrole
2. The head region labeled B of chlorophyll is tetrapyrole ring which is also called as
porphyrin head
phytol head
N2 head group
methane head group
3. The metal ion labelled C located at the center of tetrapyrole ring of the chlorophyll molecule is
Calcium
Manganese
Magnesium
Zinc
4. The side group of the primary pigment in plants,chlorophyll-a labelled D is
OH group
-CH3 group
-COOH group
-CHO group
5. Identify the structure labelled E, a photosynthetic pigment in prokaryote
Phycocyanin
Phycoerythrin
phaeophytin
bacteriochlorophyll
6. The accessory pigment that are red or orange colored hydrocarbons labelled F is
Chlorophyll b
carotene
xanthophyll
lutein
7. The accessory pigment that are brown or yellow colored oxygenated hydrocarbons labelled G is
phaeophytin
carotene
xanthophyll
phycocyanin
8. The accessory pigment in red algae and blue green algae labelled H is
phycoerythrin
phycocyanin
bacteriochlorophyll
chlorophyll D
9. The side group of the accessory pigment in plants,chlorophyll-b labelled D is
OH group
-CH3 group
-CHO group
-COOH group
10. Xanthophyll is different from carotene in having
O2
N2
H2
Mg
Score =
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This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Photosynthetic Pigments"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
photosynthetic pigments structure quiz

1. The long hydrocarbon chain that forms the tail of Chlorophyll molecule labelled A is called the
pyrole tail
phytol tail
phenol tail
tetrapyrole
2. The head region labeled B of chlorophyll is tetrapyrole ring which is also called as
porphyrin head
phytol head
N2 head group
methane head group
3. The metal ion labelled C located at the center of tetrapyrole ring of the chlorophyll molecule is
Calcium
Manganese
Magnesium
Zinc
4. The side group of the primary pigment in plants,chlorophyll-a labelled D is
OH group
-CH3 group
-COOH group
-CHO group
5. Identify the structure labelled E, a photosynthetic pigment in prokaryote
Phycocyanin
Phycoerythrin
phaeophytin
bacteriochlorophyll
6. The accessory pigment that are red or orange colored hydrocarbons labelled F is
Chlorophyll b
carotene
xanthophyll
lutein
7. The accessory pigment that are brown or yellow colored oxygenated hydrocarbons labelled G is
phaeophytin
carotene
xanthophyll
phycocyanin
8. The accessory pigment in red algae and blue green algae labelled H is
phycoerythrin
phycocyanin
bacteriochlorophyll
chlorophyll D
9. The side group of the accessory pigment in plants,chlorophyll-b labelled D is
OH group
-CH3 group
-CHO group
-COOH group
10. Xanthophyll is different from carotene in having
O2
N2
H2
Mg
Score =
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Quiz on Cancer (Oncology)

Cancer Quiz
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Oncology (Cancer)"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Oncogenes are specific sequences in DNA
That code for reverse transcriptase
when expressed produce cancer
which are tumor markers
trigger off differentiation process
2. All are oncogene products, except
Growth factors
Tyrosine kinase
Tumor necrosis factor
Interleukin 2
3. Oncogenes may be activated by all,except
promoter insertion
viral infection
reverse transcriptase
mutations in proto oncogene
4. Which is an anticancer drug?
Allopurinol
Acyclovir
6 mercaptopurine
Zidovudine
5. All the following are tumor markers, except
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Alpha fetoprotein
Tartrate labile acid phosphatase
Regan isozyme of alkaline phosphatase
6. Which malignancy results from the deletion of onco suppressor gene?
Multiple myeloma
Reinoblastoma
Lymphosarcoma
Bronchogenic carcinoma
7. All the following viruses are reported to have oncogenic, except:
Varicella
Human papilloma virus
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein Barr virus
8. Which is true with regard to p53?
it is an oncosuppressor gene product
it is an inducer of heme synthesis
It is an oncogene
none of these
9. All are correct with src oncogene, except:
oncogene product is localized in membrane
src product is a protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine
src DNA is seen in tumor tissue; not in normal cells
src gene is part of Rous sarcoma RNA virus
10. Which malignancy results from the deletion of oncosuppressor gene
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Retinoblastoma
Multiple myeloma
Lymphosarcoma
Score =
Correct answers:
Cancer Quiz
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Oncology (Cancer)"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Oncogenes are specific sequences in DNA
That code for reverse transcriptase
when expressed produce cancer
which are tumor markers
trigger off differentiation process
2. All are oncogene products, except
Growth factors
Tyrosine kinase
Tumor necrosis factor
Interleukin 2
3. Oncogenes may be activated by all,except
promoter insertion
viral infection
reverse transcriptase
mutations in proto oncogene
4. Which is an anticancer drug?
Allopurinol
Acyclovir
6 mercaptopurine
Zidovudine
5. All the following are tumor markers, except
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Alpha fetoprotein
Tartrate labile acid phosphatase
Regan isozyme of alkaline phosphatase
6. Which malignancy results from the deletion of onco suppressor gene?
Multiple myeloma
Reinoblastoma
Lymphosarcoma
Bronchogenic carcinoma
7. All the following viruses are reported to have oncogenic, except:
Varicella
Human papilloma virus
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein Barr virus
8. Which is true with regard to p53?
it is an oncosuppressor gene product
it is an inducer of heme synthesis
It is an oncogene
none of these
9. All are correct with src oncogene, except:
oncogene product is localized in membrane
src product is a protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine
src DNA is seen in tumor tissue; not in normal cells
src gene is part of Rous sarcoma RNA virus
10. Which malignancy results from the deletion of oncosuppressor gene
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Retinoblastoma
Multiple myeloma
Lymphosarcoma
Score =
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Biochemistry Quiz on Enzymology (Enzymes)

This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Enzymology Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Enzymology Quiz

1. The enzyme:
increases total energy of activation
increase total energy of the product
decrease the energy of activation
increase the equilibrium constant
2. Co enzymes are:
colloidal protein molecules
different forms of the same enzyme
dialyzable, non ptotrien molecule
structural analongs of an ennyme
3. In enzyme kinetics, Vmax denotes
half the substrate concentration
substrate concnetration
the amount of an active enzyme
quantity of enzyme substrate complex
4. The KM value of an enzyme is:
the total enzyme concentration
The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
half the substrate concentration at maximal velocity
Dissociation constant of enzyme substrate complex
5. When substrate concentration is equal to Km value:
The reaction is now at equibrillium
Maximum velocity is achieved.
maximum enzyme moleules are taking part in the reaction
Half of the enzyme molecules are bound to the substrate molecules and the other half are free
6. In competitive inhibition:
Km is increased and Vmax is increased
Km is increased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is increased
7. Allosteric enzymes show all the following characteristics, except:
sigmoid kinetics
binding between substrate and regulatory sites
cooperative binding of the substrate
substrate binding site and regulatory site are different
8. Enzymes synthesized in inactive form are called:
Apoenzymes
coenzymes
proenzymes
none of these
9. A competitive inhibitor will affect the enzyme activity:
Decreasing Km value
increasing Vmax
precipitating the enzyme protein
irreversibly denaturing the enzymes
10. Digestive enzymes belong to the class:
Lysases
Ligases
Hydrolases
oxidoreductases
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Enzymology Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Enzymology Quiz

1. The enzyme:
increases total energy of activation
increase total energy of the product
decrease the energy of activation
increase the equilibrium constant
2. Co enzymes are:
colloidal protein molecules
different forms of the same enzyme
dialyzable, non ptotrien molecule
structural analongs of an ennyme
3. In enzyme kinetics, Vmax denotes
half the substrate concentration
substrate concnetration
the amount of an active enzyme
quantity of enzyme substrate complex
4. The KM value of an enzyme is:
the total enzyme concentration
The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
half the substrate concentration at maximal velocity
Dissociation constant of enzyme substrate complex
5. When substrate concentration is equal to Km value:
The reaction is now at equibrillium
Maximum velocity is achieved.
maximum enzyme moleules are taking part in the reaction
Half of the enzyme molecules are bound to the substrate molecules and the other half are free
6. In competitive inhibition:
Km is increased and Vmax is increased
Km is increased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is increased
7. Allosteric enzymes show all the following characteristics, except:
sigmoid kinetics
binding between substrate and regulatory sites
cooperative binding of the substrate
substrate binding site and regulatory site are different
8. Enzymes synthesized in inactive form are called:
Apoenzymes
coenzymes
proenzymes
none of these
9. A competitive inhibitor will affect the enzyme activity:
Decreasing Km value
increasing Vmax
precipitating the enzyme protein
irreversibly denaturing the enzymes
10. Digestive enzymes belong to the class:
Lysases
Ligases
Hydrolases
oxidoreductases
Score =
Correct answers:
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