QuizBiology.com

Quiz on Zika virus

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
Score =
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Ecological Succession

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ecological succession"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Large woody vines are more commonly found in
magroves
alpine forests
scrub forests
tropical rain forests
2. The stable community structure of an ecosystem is termed as
biocommunity
dominant community
domicile factor
climax community
3. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
it occurs on a deforested site
it follows primary succession
it begins on a bare rock
it is similar to primary succesion except that it has a relatively slower pace
4. Select the correct match A. Sedimentary nutrient cycle - Nitogen cycle B. Pioneer species - Lichens C. Secondary succession - Burned forests D. Pyramid of biomass in sea -Upright
A, B and D only
A and C only
B and C only
A, B and C only
5. Quercus species are the dominant component in
Biocommunity
dominant community
climax community
Domicile factor
6. Plant succession taking place in sandy area
halosere
psammosere
hydrosere
xerosere
7. Lithosphere serves as reservoir
for carbon cycles
for phosphorus cycles
for oxygen cycles
for nitrogen cycles
8. When vegetation of any region reaches climax, it is
xerophytic
mesophytic
hydrophytic
lithophytic
9. Which of the following in not a climax vegetation?
forests
hydrophytes
savannah
grasses
10. -1 oC to 13 oC annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 to 250 cm annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of a major biome as
grassland
coniferous forest
desert
temperate forest
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ecological succession"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Large woody vines are more commonly found in
magroves
alpine forests
scrub forests
tropical rain forests
2. The stable community structure of an ecosystem is termed as
biocommunity
dominant community
domicile factor
climax community
3. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
it occurs on a deforested site
it follows primary succession
it begins on a bare rock
it is similar to primary succesion except that it has a relatively slower pace
4. Select the correct match A. Sedimentary nutrient cycle - Nitogen cycle B. Pioneer species - Lichens C. Secondary succession - Burned forests D. Pyramid of biomass in sea -Upright
A, B and D only
A and C only
B and C only
A, B and C only
5. Quercus species are the dominant component in
Biocommunity
dominant community
climax community
Domicile factor
6. Plant succession taking place in sandy area
halosere
psammosere
hydrosere
xerosere
7. Lithosphere serves as reservoir
for carbon cycles
for phosphorus cycles
for oxygen cycles
for nitrogen cycles
8. When vegetation of any region reaches climax, it is
xerophytic
mesophytic
hydrophytic
lithophytic
9. Which of the following in not a climax vegetation?
forests
hydrophytes
savannah
grasses
10. -1 oC to 13 oC annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 to 250 cm annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of a major biome as
grassland
coniferous forest
desert
temperate forest
Score =
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Breeding

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Plant breeding"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Green revolution in India occurred during
1950
1960
1970
1980
2.Selection of homozygous plants is
mass selection
pureline selection
both a and b
none of these
3.Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?
It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations
it leads to homozygosity
it is used to produce a pure line
it always increases the productivity
4. Breeding crops for improved nutritional quality is referred to as
biomining
biomagnification
biofortification
bioremediation
5. Triticale is developed through intergeneric hybridization of
Wheat and rye
Maize and rice
Wheat and rice
Wheat and barley
6. ‘Parbhani kranti’, a variety of lady finger ( bhindi) , is resistant to
Leaf curl
Bacterial blight
Black rot
Yellow mosaic of virus
7. Heterosis lost due to continuous inbreeding known as
Hybrid vigour
Inbreeding depression
Outbreeding depression
none of these
8. Semi dwarf rice variety IR8 was developed in
India
Taiwan
China
Philippines
9. Breeding for disease resistance requires
Good source of resistance
Disease test
Planned hybridisation
All of the above
10. ‘Sonalika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ are high yielding varieties of
Rice
Wheat
Maize
Sugar cane
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Plant breeding"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Green revolution in India occurred during
1950
1960
1970
1980
2.Selection of homozygous plants is
mass selection
pureline selection
both a and b
none of these
3.Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?
It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations
it leads to homozygosity
it is used to produce a pure line
it always increases the productivity
4. Breeding crops for improved nutritional quality is referred to as
biomining
biomagnification
biofortification
bioremediation
5. Triticale is developed through intergeneric hybridization of
Wheat and rye
Maize and rice
Wheat and rice
Wheat and barley
6. ‘Parbhani kranti’, a variety of lady finger ( bhindi) , is resistant to
Leaf curl
Bacterial blight
Black rot
Yellow mosaic of virus
7. Heterosis lost due to continuous inbreeding known as
Hybrid vigour
Inbreeding depression
Outbreeding depression
none of these
8. Semi dwarf rice variety IR8 was developed in
India
Taiwan
China
Philippines
9. Breeding for disease resistance requires
Good source of resistance
Disease test
Planned hybridisation
All of the above
10. ‘Sonalika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ are high yielding varieties of
Rice
Wheat
Maize
Sugar cane
Score =
Correct answers:
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Diagram quiz on Flower Parts

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Parts of a flower"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.



1. Which of the following is a justification for considering the above flower as a ‘complete flower’?
Presence of calyx and corolla
Presence of stamens and carpels
Presence of androecium and gynoecium only
Presence of all four whorls
2. The region labeled C and D are called the reproductive whorls of a flower. The whorls are
gynoecium and androecium
stamens and carpels
carpels and stamens
anther and stigma
3. The part labeled A is the outermost whorl of the flower. It is the
perianth
calyx
corolla
style
4. Stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower (C). Each stamen consists of two parts, labeled E and F in the diagram. It is the
anther and style
anther and filament
style and filament
stigma and filament
5. The region labeled A and B are called the vegetative whorls of a flower. The whorls are
calyx and sepals
calyx and corolla
calyx and carpels
corolla and carpels
6. The brightly coloured whorl is the corolla (B). The corolla is composed of
sepals
petals
stamens
ovule
7. Carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower. Each carpel consists of three parts, labeled G, H and I in the diagram. The part that receives pollen grains during pollination is G. It is the
anther
ovule
stigma
style
8. The flower in the diagram has both male (stamen) and female (carpel) reproductive whorls. Such a flower is called as
unisexual
bisexual
dioecious
autoecious
9. The part labeled J is the site where female gamete or egg develops. It is the
ovary
ovule
anther
stigma
10. The ovules are formed from a soft tissue called placenta of the part labeled I. I is the
ovary
embryo
egg
stigma
11. After fertilization, the regions that develops to fruit and seed is labeled as I and J. It is the
stigma and style
ovary and ovule
ovule and ovary
anther and ovule
Score =
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This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Parts of a flower"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.



1. Which of the following is a justification for considering the above flower as a ‘complete flower’?
Presence of calyx and corolla
Presence of stamens and carpels
Presence of androecium and gynoecium only
Presence of all four whorls
2. The region labeled C and D are called the reproductive whorls of a flower. The whorls are
gynoecium and androecium
stamens and carpels
carpels and stamens
anther and stigma
3. The part labeled A is the outermost whorl of the flower. It is the
perianth
calyx
corolla
style
4. Stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower (C). Each stamen consists of two parts, labeled E and F in the diagram. It is the
anther and style
anther and filament
style and filament
stigma and filament
5. The region labeled A and B are called the vegetative whorls of a flower. The whorls are
calyx and sepals
calyx and corolla
calyx and carpels
corolla and carpels
6. The brightly coloured whorl is the corolla (B). The corolla is composed of
sepals
petals
stamens
ovule
7. Carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower. Each carpel consists of three parts, labeled G, H and I in the diagram. The part that receives pollen grains during pollination is G. It is the
anther
ovule
stigma
style
8. The flower in the diagram has both male (stamen) and female (carpel) reproductive whorls. Such a flower is called as
unisexual
bisexual
dioecious
autoecious
9. The part labeled J is the site where female gamete or egg develops. It is the
ovary
ovule
anther
stigma
10. The ovules are formed from a soft tissue called placenta of the part labeled I. I is the
ovary
embryo
egg
stigma
11. After fertilization, the regions that develops to fruit and seed is labeled as I and J. It is the
stigma and style
ovary and ovule
ovule and ovary
anther and ovule
Score =
Correct answers:
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Genetics Terminology Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Basic Genetics terms"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Gene is a
segment of aminoacid sequence that codes for a functional polypeptide
segment of DNA that codes for proteins and RNAs
segment of DNA that codes for functional polypeptide
segment of mRNA that codes for functional polypeptide
2. Alleles are
alternative forms of a protein
alternative forms of mRNA
alternative forms of gene
alternative phenotypes expressed at a loci
3. The cross between F1 hybrid X one of the parental types is called
epistasis
back cross
test cross
dominant epistasis
4. Alleles are located on the
same locus of homologous chromosomes
different locus of homologous chromosomes
same locus of sister chromatids
different locus of sister chromatids
5. A cross involving two allelic pairs (WWYY X wwyy)is called
test cross
monohybrid cross
Dihybrid cross
back cross
6. Test cross that helps to find out the genotype of the offspring is between
unknown individual X F1
unknown individual X any of the parent
unknown individual X recessive parent
unknown individual X dominant parent
7. The presence of only one allele in a pair is called as
homozygous
hemizygous
heterozygous
monoallelic
8. All genotypes of all organisms in a population forms
genome
gene pool
proteome
mosaicism
9. Locus is the
fixed position of chromosome in the mataphase plate
fixed position of a gene on a chromosome
fixed position of a DNA tandem repeats on a chromosome
fixed position of active genes on a chromosome
10. Genome represents
complete genes in a diploid cell
complete genes in a gamete
complete chromosomes in a diploid cell
complete genes and proteins in a diploid cell
Score =
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Take Quiz on Genetic Code
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Basic Genetics terms"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Gene is a
segment of aminoacid sequence that codes for a functional polypeptide
segment of DNA that codes for proteins and RNAs
segment of DNA that codes for functional polypeptide
segment of mRNA that codes for functional polypeptide
2. Alleles are
alternative forms of a protein
alternative forms of mRNA
alternative forms of gene
alternative phenotypes expressed at a loci
3. The cross between F1 hybrid X one of the parental types is called
epistasis
back cross
test cross
dominant epistasis
4. Alleles are located on the
same locus of homologous chromosomes
different locus of homologous chromosomes
same locus of sister chromatids
different locus of sister chromatids
5. A cross involving two allelic pairs (WWYY X wwyy)is called
test cross
monohybrid cross
Dihybrid cross
back cross
6. Test cross that helps to find out the genotype of the offspring is between
unknown individual X F1
unknown individual X any of the parent
unknown individual X recessive parent
unknown individual X dominant parent
7. The presence of only one allele in a pair is called as
homozygous
hemizygous
heterozygous
monoallelic
8. All genotypes of all organisms in a population forms
genome
gene pool
proteome
mosaicism
9. Locus is the
fixed position of chromosome in the mataphase plate
fixed position of a gene on a chromosome
fixed position of a DNA tandem repeats on a chromosome
fixed position of active genes on a chromosome
10. Genome represents
complete genes in a diploid cell
complete genes in a gamete
complete chromosomes in a diploid cell
complete genes and proteins in a diploid cell
Score =
Correct answers:
Take Quiz on Genetic Code
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Diagram Quiz on Steps in recombinant DNA or rDNA technology

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Steps in recombinant DNA technologyChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
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Steps in rDNA technology Diagram
1. The first step in rDNA technology, labelled 1 is
isolation of gene of interest
transformation
Identification and isolation of donor gene
Selection of donor gene

2. It is double stranded, self replicating, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria which is widely used as a gene cloning vector. The structure labelled 2 in the figure is
cosmid
bacterial genome
phagemid
plasmid

3. These enzymes are called as molecular scissors which is essential for making internal cuts in a DNA molecule or vector at specific sites. The enzyme used in making cut in the vector (labelled 3) is
restriction endonuclease
restriction exonuclease
polynucleotide kinase
nuclease

4. The cut by the enzyme in the vector (labelled 4) creates single stranded unpaired regions of DNA. This type of cut pattern is called as
even cut
loose cut
staggered cut
blunt end

5. 5'GAATTC3' is a restriction site of a widely used restriction enzyme which produces sticky ends. The enzyme is
Bam H1
Hind III
Eco R1
Hind II

6. In the figure labelled 6, the DNA strand is the
gene of interest with sticky end
rDNA
gene of interest with blunt end
chimeric DNA

7. This enzyme is called as molecular glue which is used to join two DNA strands by forming phosphodiester bond. The joining enzyme labelled 7 is
restriction enzyme type I
ligase
lyase
terminal transferase

8. The vector (plasmid) with foreign gene inserted is called (labelled 8)
recombinant DNA
chimeric DNA
cp DNA
both a and b

9. The figure labelled 9 is the process of introducing recombinant vector into a suitable host like bacterium.The process is called
conjugation
transformation
transduction
incorperation

10. In the figure, 10 a and 10 b are processes that lead to the formation of protein product encoded by the gene of interest. 10 a and 10 b are
replication and transcription
transcription and translation
transcription and transformation
replication and transformation

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Steps in recombinant DNA technologyChoose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
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                            Quiz on Cell Biology
Steps in rDNA technology Diagram
1. The first step in rDNA technology, labelled 1 is
isolation of gene of interest
transformation
Identification and isolation of donor gene
Selection of donor gene

2. It is double stranded, self replicating, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria which is widely used as a gene cloning vector. The structure labelled 2 in the figure is
cosmid
bacterial genome
phagemid
plasmid

3. These enzymes are called as molecular scissors which is essential for making internal cuts in a DNA molecule or vector at specific sites. The enzyme used in making cut in the vector (labelled 3) is
restriction endonuclease
restriction exonuclease
polynucleotide kinase
nuclease

4. The cut by the enzyme in the vector (labelled 4) creates single stranded unpaired regions of DNA. This type of cut pattern is called as
even cut
loose cut
staggered cut
blunt end

5. 5'GAATTC3' is a restriction site of a widely used restriction enzyme which produces sticky ends. The enzyme is
Bam H1
Hind III
Eco R1
Hind II

6. In the figure labelled 6, the DNA strand is the
gene of interest with sticky end
rDNA
gene of interest with blunt end
chimeric DNA

7. This enzyme is called as molecular glue which is used to join two DNA strands by forming phosphodiester bond. The joining enzyme labelled 7 is
restriction enzyme type I
ligase
lyase
terminal transferase

8. The vector (plasmid) with foreign gene inserted is called (labelled 8)
recombinant DNA
chimeric DNA
cp DNA
both a and b

9. The figure labelled 9 is the process of introducing recombinant vector into a suitable host like bacterium.The process is called
conjugation
transformation
transduction
incorperation

10. In the figure, 10 a and 10 b are processes that lead to the formation of protein product encoded by the gene of interest. 10 a and 10 b are
replication and transcription
transcription and translation
transcription and transformation
replication and transformation

Score =
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Plant Cell and Animal Cell Diagram Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Difference between plant cell and animal cell".Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
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Labeled diagram Plant Cell and Animal Cell
1. Which of the following is a justification for considering diagram 1 as a plant cell?
Presence of mitochondrion
Presence of vacoule
Presence of cell wall
Presence of plasma membrane
2. The structure labeled A is present in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The structure is
Ribosomes
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Endoplasmic reticulum
3. The organelle labeled F is responsible for life in this planet and animal cells lack this organelle. The organelle is
Mitochondrion
Ribosomes
Chloroplast
Nucleus
4. This is the physical basis of life where all organelles are present. The site labeled C is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasm
lysosomes
5. The structure labeled E is called “CPU of the cell” where the genetic material resides. It is the
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
Golgi apparatus
6. The structure labeled G give rise to spindle fibers and exclusively seen in animal cell. The structure is called
Lysosome
Peroxisome
Centriole
Endoplasmic reticulam
7. The organelle H is the “power house of the cell” in all eukaryotes where ATP is synthesized. The organelle is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
lysosome
8. It is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins. The organelle labeled I is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
9. It is the site of lipid biosynthesis and drug detoxification. The organelle labeled J is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondrion
10. Unlike animal cells, plant cells possess cell wall and large vacuole. In the diagram, it is labeled as
A and D respectively
B and D respectively
B and C respectively
C and D respectively
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Difference between plant cell and animal cell".Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Related Quizzes: Bacterial Cell Diagram Quiz
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                            Quiz on Cell Biology
Labeled diagram Plant Cell and Animal Cell
1. Which of the following is a justification for considering diagram 1 as a plant cell?
Presence of mitochondrion
Presence of vacoule
Presence of cell wall
Presence of plasma membrane
2. The structure labeled A is present in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The structure is
Ribosomes
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Endoplasmic reticulum
3. The organelle labeled F is responsible for life in this planet and animal cells lack this organelle. The organelle is
Mitochondrion
Ribosomes
Chloroplast
Nucleus
4. This is the physical basis of life where all organelles are present. The site labeled C is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasm
lysosomes
5. The structure labeled E is called “CPU of the cell” where the genetic material resides. It is the
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
Golgi apparatus
6. The structure labeled G give rise to spindle fibers and exclusively seen in animal cell. The structure is called
Lysosome
Peroxisome
Centriole
Endoplasmic reticulam
7. The organelle H is the “power house of the cell” in all eukaryotes where ATP is synthesized. The organelle is
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
lysosome
8. It is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins. The organelle labeled I is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
9. It is the site of lipid biosynthesis and drug detoxification. The organelle labeled J is
Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondrion
10. Unlike animal cells, plant cells possess cell wall and large vacuole. In the diagram, it is labeled as
A and D respectively
B and D respectively
B and C respectively
C and D respectively
Score =
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Quiz on Protein Synthesis

Multiple Choice Quiz on Protein Synthesis
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Protein Synthesis’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. If mRNA codon is 5'AUG 3', then the tRNA anticodon will be
5'UAC3'
5'GUA3'
3'CAU5'
3'UAC5'
2. In amino acid activation, the activated amino acid attach to the 3' end of the tRNA through
adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
3. Which is the bond that joins amino acid with tRNA?
H bond
Di sulphide bond
ionic bond
ester bond
4. The ribosome binding site on mRNA in prokaryotes is called Shine-Dalgarno sequence which is
3'AGGAGGU5'
5'AGGAGGU3'
5'AGGGAGGGU3'
5'AGAAGGU3'
5. The 40S preinitiation complex in eukaryotes consists of
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF1-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF2-GTP
40S subunit-Ala tRNA Ala-eIF3-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF4B-ATP
6. The Aminoacyl A-site and Peptidyl P-site are located on
A site in smaller subunit and P site in larger subunit
Smaller subunit
larger subunit
P site in smaller subunit and A site in larger subunit
7. Which of the following factors are required for binding of 30S and 50S subunits of ribosomes?
GTP and Mg2+
ATP and Mg2+
GTP and K+
ATP and K+
8. Which of the following is correct about termination of protein synthesis in Eukaryotes?
Termination occurs when stop codon on mRNA reaches the A site of ribosome
RF1 and RF2 releases formed polypeptide from P site
Peptidyl transferase catalyses release of polypeptide chain from P site
All of the above
9. The number of ATP and GTP required for addition of an aminoacid to a polypeptide chain is
1 ATP and 1 GTP
1 ATP and 2 GTPs
2 ATPs and 1 GTP
2 ATPs and 2 GTPs
10. How many different amino acyl tRNA synthetase enzymes are required for translation?
20
64
30-40
61
Score =
Correct answers:
Multiple Choice Quiz on Protein Synthesis
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Protein Synthesis’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. If mRNA codon is 5'AUG 3', then the tRNA anticodon will be
5'UAC3'
5'GUA3'
3'CAU5'
3'UAC5'
2. In amino acid activation, the activated amino acid attach to the 3' end of the tRNA through
adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
3. Which is the bond that joins amino acid with tRNA?
H bond
Di sulphide bond
ionic bond
ester bond
4. The ribosome binding site on mRNA in prokaryotes is called Shine-Dalgarno sequence which is
3'AGGAGGU5'
5'AGGAGGU3'
5'AGGGAGGGU3'
5'AGAAGGU3'
5. The 40S preinitiation complex in eukaryotes consists of
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF1-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF2-GTP
40S subunit-Ala tRNA Ala-eIF3-GTP
40S subunit-Met tRNA Met-eIF4B-ATP
6. The Aminoacyl A-site and Peptidyl P-site are located on
A site in smaller subunit and P site in larger subunit
Smaller subunit
larger subunit
P site in smaller subunit and A site in larger subunit
7. Which of the following factors are required for binding of 30S and 50S subunits of ribosomes?
GTP and Mg2+
ATP and Mg2+
GTP and K+
ATP and K+
8. Which of the following is correct about termination of protein synthesis in Eukaryotes?
Termination occurs when stop codon on mRNA reaches the A site of ribosome
RF1 and RF2 releases formed polypeptide from P site
Peptidyl transferase catalyses release of polypeptide chain from P site
All of the above
9. The number of ATP and GTP required for addition of an aminoacid to a polypeptide chain is
1 ATP and 1 GTP
1 ATP and 2 GTPs
2 ATPs and 1 GTP
2 ATPs and 2 GTPs
10. How many different amino acyl tRNA synthetase enzymes are required for translation?
20
64
30-40
61
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multipl Choice Quiz on Enzymes in Recombinant DNA Technology

Recombinant DNA technology is the sum of techniques used in genetic engineering that involves the identification, isolation and insertion of gene of interest into a vector such as a plasmid or bacteriophage to form a recombinant DNA molecule and production of large quantities of that gene fragment or product encoded by that gene. This practice test will help you to asses your knowledge about the enzymes and its uses in rDNA technology


1. Which of the following enzyme is suitable for dephosphorylation at 5’ end of a DNA strand?
Methyl transferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Polynunucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
2. Which of the following enzyme would you select for protecting a DNA strand from cleavage by restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
Restriction endonuclease
Restriction exonuclease
Methyl transferase
Polynunucleotide kinase
3. If you want to radiolabel a DNA strand using P32, which of the following is the most suited enzyme for that purpose?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Polynucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl transferase
4. Which of the following polymerase enzyme would you select for cDNA synthesis?
DNA polymerase
Taq polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Vent polymerase
5. If you have two DNA fragments A and B, both with blunt ends, In order to make it sticky which enzyme would you select for homopolymer tailing?
DNA polymerase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Reverse transcriptase
6. Once the two fragments are joined, the final sealing phosphodiester bond is formed by
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Transcriptase
Ligase
7. Which of the following enzyme would you select for cutting a DNA strand with recognition sequence ‘GAATTC’?
T4 ligase
Taq polymerase
Eco R1
Alu I
8. Which of the following enzyme groups would you select for cDNA synthesis?
Reverse transcriptase, ribonuclease H and DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and alkaline phosphatase
Ribonuclease H, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
9. Taq polymerase require
A free end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 5-P end for adding complementary nucleotides
Adds complementary nucleotides to both 3’ OH end and 5’P end
10. Match enzyme with its activity 1. Adds phosphate group 2. Forms phosphodiester bond c) Removes phosphate group d) Adds complementary nucleotides
1. Terminal nucleotydyl transferase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Polynucleotide kinase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Ligase 2. DNA polymerase 3. Polynucleotide kinase 4. Reverse transcriptase
1. Ligase 2. Polynucleotide kinase 3. Restriction enzymes 4. DNA polymerase
Score =
Correct answers:
Recombinant DNA technology is the sum of techniques used in genetic engineering that involves the identification, isolation and insertion of gene of interest into a vector such as a plasmid or bacteriophage to form a recombinant DNA molecule and production of large quantities of that gene fragment or product encoded by that gene. This practice test will help you to asses your knowledge about the enzymes and its uses in rDNA technology


1. Which of the following enzyme is suitable for dephosphorylation at 5’ end of a DNA strand?
Methyl transferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Polynunucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
2. Which of the following enzyme would you select for protecting a DNA strand from cleavage by restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
Restriction endonuclease
Restriction exonuclease
Methyl transferase
Polynunucleotide kinase
3. If you want to radiolabel a DNA strand using P32, which of the following is the most suited enzyme for that purpose?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Polynucleotide kinase
Terminal nucleotydyl transferase
4. Which of the following polymerase enzyme would you select for cDNA synthesis?
DNA polymerase
Taq polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Vent polymerase
5. If you have two DNA fragments A and B, both with blunt ends, In order to make it sticky which enzyme would you select for homopolymer tailing?
DNA polymerase
Terminal nucleotydyl ransferase
Alkaline phosphatase
Reverse transcriptase
6. Once the two fragments are joined, the final sealing phosphodiester bond is formed by
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Transcriptase
Ligase
7. Which of the following enzyme would you select for cutting a DNA strand with recognition sequence ‘GAATTC’?
T4 ligase
Taq polymerase
Eco R1
Alu I
8. Which of the following enzyme groups would you select for cDNA synthesis?
Reverse transcriptase, ribonuclease H and DNA polymerase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and alkaline phosphatase
Ribonuclease H, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
9. Taq polymerase require
A free end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides
A free 5-P end for adding complementary nucleotides
Adds complementary nucleotides to both 3’ OH end and 5’P end
10. Match enzyme with its activity 1. Adds phosphate group 2. Forms phosphodiester bond c) Removes phosphate group d) Adds complementary nucleotides
1. Terminal nucleotydyl transferase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Polynucleotide kinase 2. Ligase 3. Alkaline phosphatase 4. DNA polymerase
1. Ligase 2. DNA polymerase 3. Polynucleotide kinase 4. Reverse transcriptase
1. Ligase 2. Polynucleotide kinase 3. Restriction enzymes 4. DNA polymerase
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple choice Quiz on DNA Sequencing

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘DNA sequencing’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
DNA chip sequencing
Edman's method
Sanger’s method
Maxam-Gilbert method
2. Which of the following is called as dideoxynucleotide chain termination method?
Sanger's method
Maxam-Gilbert method
Edman's method
Automated sequencing method
3. How many ddNTPs are used in Sanger’s method?
1
2
3
4
4. In automated DNA sequencing,
radio labelled dNTPs are used
radio labelled ddNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used
5. In Maxam-Gilbert method, chemical used for cytosine alteration is
formic acid
hydrazine
Dimethyl sulphate
piperidine
6. The chemical used for strand cleavage in Maxam-Gilbert method is
Piperidine
hydrazine
formic acid
DMSO
7. ddNTP is different from dNTP in having
H in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 2 position of dNTP
CH3 in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
8. Sanger sequenced the first complete genome of
T4 phage
C. elegans
TMV
ФX 174
9. Automated DNA sequencing is an improvement of Sanger’s method where
ddNTPS are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used for chain termination
PCR is used for making sequencing templates
10. Frederick Sanger won Nobel Prize in 1980 for sequencing phage ФX 174. He was already awarded with Nobel Prize in 1958 for
discovery of Sanger’s method
elucidating amino acid sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of somatostatin
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘DNA sequencing’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
DNA chip sequencing
Edman's method
Sanger’s method
Maxam-Gilbert method
2. Which of the following is called as dideoxynucleotide chain termination method?
Sanger's method
Maxam-Gilbert method
Edman's method
Automated sequencing method
3. How many ddNTPs are used in Sanger’s method?
1
2
3
4
4. In automated DNA sequencing,
radio labelled dNTPs are used
radio labelled ddNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used
fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used
5. In Maxam-Gilbert method, chemical used for cytosine alteration is
formic acid
hydrazine
Dimethyl sulphate
piperidine
6. The chemical used for strand cleavage in Maxam-Gilbert method is
Piperidine
hydrazine
formic acid
DMSO
7. ddNTP is different from dNTP in having
H in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 3 position of dNTP
OH in place of H in 2 position of dNTP
CH3 in place of OH in 3 position of dNTP
8. Sanger sequenced the first complete genome of
T4 phage
C. elegans
TMV
ФX 174
9. Automated DNA sequencing is an improvement of Sanger’s method where
ddNTPS are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled dNTPs are used for chain termination
Fluorescently labelled ddNTPs are used for chain termination
PCR is used for making sequencing templates
10. Frederick Sanger won Nobel Prize in 1980 for sequencing phage ФX 174. He was already awarded with Nobel Prize in 1958 for
discovery of Sanger’s method
elucidating amino acid sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of insulin
elucidating nucleotide sequence of somatostatin
Score =
Correct answers:
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MCQ Quiz on Virus Structure

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Virus Structure’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Virus

1. A virus is made up of
Protein coat and mitochondria
protein coat and nucleic acid
nucleic acid and cell membrane
nucleic acid, cell wall and cell membrane

2. The protein coat of viruses that enclose the genetic material is called
virion
peplomers
capsomeres
capsid

3. A virion is
the viral capsid
an intact infectious viral particle
lysogenic phage
lytic phage

4. The genome of virus is
DNA or RNA
DNA
RNA
DNA and RNA

5. Capsomeres are
unit of nucleic acids in viruses
individual units of capsid
viral proteins for replication
all of the above

6. Peplomers are
Projections on the viral membrane
individual units of capsids
spike like projections on the capsid
spike like projections on the enveloped viruses

7. An icosahedral capsid consists of
pentagonal capsomeres
haxagonal capsomeres
both a and b
triangular, pentagonal and hexagonal capsomeres

8. Which of the following has a complex symmetry?
TMV
T4 phage
Adenovirus
Influenza virus

9. Viral envelope is made up of
lipids
proteins
lipids and proteins
lipids and glycoproteins

10. Which of the following is a helical virus
T4 phage
TMV
Pox virus
Herpes virus

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Virus Structure’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Virus

1. A virus is made up of
Protein coat and mitochondria
protein coat and nucleic acid
nucleic acid and cell membrane
nucleic acid, cell wall and cell membrane

2. The protein coat of viruses that enclose the genetic material is called
virion
peplomers
capsomeres
capsid

3. A virion is
the viral capsid
an intact infectious viral particle
lysogenic phage
lytic phage

4. The genome of virus is
DNA or RNA
DNA
RNA
DNA and RNA

5. Capsomeres are
unit of nucleic acids in viruses
individual units of capsid
viral proteins for replication
all of the above

6. Peplomers are
Projections on the viral membrane
individual units of capsids
spike like projections on the capsid
spike like projections on the enveloped viruses

7. An icosahedral capsid consists of
pentagonal capsomeres
haxagonal capsomeres
both a and b
triangular, pentagonal and hexagonal capsomeres

8. Which of the following has a complex symmetry?
TMV
T4 phage
Adenovirus
Influenza virus

9. Viral envelope is made up of
lipids
proteins
lipids and proteins
lipids and glycoproteins

10. Which of the following is a helical virus
T4 phage
TMV
Pox virus
Herpes virus

Score =
Correct answers:

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Immunology Quiz on Hypersensitivity Reactions

This immunology quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Hypersentivity’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
An overview on hypersensitivity
1. Asthma is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Which of the following is called as antibody mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by
B cells and IgE
mast cells and IgG
mast cells and IgE
B cella and Ig G
4. T cells called as TDTH mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
5. Killer cells along with IgM mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
6. Serum sickness is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
7. Tuberculosis is a classical example for
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
8. ‘Arthus’ reaction is a characteristic reaction for the identification of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
9. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as
antibody mediated hypersensitivity
IgE mediated hypersensitivity
cell mediated hypersensitivity
IgG mediated hypersensitivity
10. All are examples of Type I hypersensitivity except
penicillin allergy
serum sickness
dust sickness
pollen allergy
Score =
Correct answers:
This immunology quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Hypersentivity’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
An overview on hypersensitivity
1. Asthma is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Which of the following is called as antibody mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by
B cells and IgE
mast cells and IgG
mast cells and IgE
B cella and Ig G
4. T cells called as TDTH mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
5. Killer cells along with IgM mediates
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
6. Serum sickness is an example of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
7. Tuberculosis is a classical example for
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
8. ‘Arthus’ reaction is a characteristic reaction for the identification of
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
9. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as
antibody mediated hypersensitivity
IgE mediated hypersensitivity
cell mediated hypersensitivity
IgG mediated hypersensitivity
10. All are examples of Type I hypersensitivity except
penicillin allergy
serum sickness
dust sickness
pollen allergy
Score =
Correct answers:
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Multiple Choice Quiz on Cell Theory

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell Theory’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The first man to observe live cell under microscope was
Robert Hooke
Leeuwenhoek
Schleiden
Virchow

2. He placed a slice of cork under his microscope and he called the structure observed as 'cell'. The person mentioned is
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Zacharias Janssen
Schwann
Robert Hooke

3. All the following statements are true regarding the "cell theory" except
All living things or organisms are made of cells
All cells arise spotaneously
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
All cells arise from preexisting cells

4. Robert Hooke published the discovery of the cell in his book
Genera plantarum
Species plantarum
Micrographia
The origin of species

5. All cells arise from preexisting cells. This tenet of cell theory was put forward by
Schwann
Virchow
Schleiden
Robert Hooke

6. The 'theory of cell lineage' was proposed by
Schleiden
Flemming
Virchow
Robert Hooke

7. Robert Hooke's observation of honey comb like structural units under microscope was actually
Plant protoplasm
Plasma membrane
cell wall
entire cell

8. Which of the following is not an exception of cell theory
bacteria
viruses
prions
viroids

9. The 'protoplasm theory' stating protoplasm as the physical basis of life was proposed by
Flemming
Purkinje
Robert Brown
Weismann

10. The nucleus was first described by
Robert Brown
Robert Hooke
Weismann
Nageli

Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell Theory’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The first man to observe live cell under microscope was
Robert Hooke
Leeuwenhoek
Schleiden
Virchow

2. He placed a slice of cork under his microscope and he called the structure observed as 'cell'. The person mentioned is
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Zacharias Janssen
Schwann
Robert Hooke

3. All the following statements are true regarding the "cell theory" except
All living things or organisms are made of cells
All cells arise spotaneously
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life
All cells arise from preexisting cells

4. Robert Hooke published the discovery of the cell in his book
Genera plantarum
Species plantarum
Micrographia
The origin of species

5. All cells arise from preexisting cells. This tenet of cell theory was put forward by
Schwann
Virchow
Schleiden
Robert Hooke

6. The 'theory of cell lineage' was proposed by
Schleiden
Flemming
Virchow
Robert Hooke

7. Robert Hooke's observation of honey comb like structural units under microscope was actually
Plant protoplasm
Plasma membrane
cell wall
entire cell

8. Which of the following is not an exception of cell theory
bacteria
viruses
prions
viroids

9. The 'protoplasm theory' stating protoplasm as the physical basis of life was proposed by
Flemming
Purkinje
Robert Brown
Weismann

10. The nucleus was first described by
Robert Brown
Robert Hooke
Weismann
Nageli

Score =
Correct answers:

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Multiple Choice Quiz on Cell The Unit of Life

This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell - The unit of life’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of
phospholipids and oligosaccharides
phospholipids and hemicellulose
phospholipids and intergral proteins
phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins
2. A bivalent consists of
two chromatids and one centromere
two chromatids and two centromeres
four chromatids and two centromweres
four chromatids and four centromeres
3. Additional of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is
deposition
apposition
aggregation
intussusception
4. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved ones is
cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
nucleus in heredity
chromosomes in heredity
nucleus cytoplasmic ratio
5. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure
cell theory means that all living objects consissts of cells wheather or not capable of reproducing
it needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chrorplasts and mitochondria
cell theory does not hold good because all living beings( eg., viruses) do not have capable of reproducing
modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells capable of reproducing
6. Golgi apparatus is absent in
higher plants
yeast
bacteria and blue green algae
none of the above
7. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with
photorespiration
phototropism
photoperiodism
photosynthesis
8. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of
DNA replication
RNA and protein synthesis
synthesis of lipids
synthesis of polysaccharides
9. The prokaryotic flagella possess
unit membrane enclosed fibre
protein membrane enclosed fibre
9+2 membrane enclosed fibre
helically arranged protein molecule
10. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplasts and mitochondria is explained by
chemiosmotic theory
Munch's hypothesis (mass flow model)
relay pump theory of Godlewski
Cholodny Wont's model
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  knowledge in ‘Cell - The unit of life’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of
phospholipids and oligosaccharides
phospholipids and hemicellulose
phospholipids and intergral proteins
phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins
2. A bivalent consists of
two chromatids and one centromere
two chromatids and two centromeres
four chromatids and two centromweres
four chromatids and four centromeres
3. Additional of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is
deposition
apposition
aggregation
intussusception
4. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved ones is
cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
nucleus in heredity
chromosomes in heredity
nucleus cytoplasmic ratio
5. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure
cell theory means that all living objects consissts of cells wheather or not capable of reproducing
it needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chrorplasts and mitochondria
cell theory does not hold good because all living beings( eg., viruses) do not have capable of reproducing
modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells capable of reproducing
6. Golgi apparatus is absent in
higher plants
yeast
bacteria and blue green algae
none of the above
7. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with
photorespiration
phototropism
photoperiodism
photosynthesis
8. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of
DNA replication
RNA and protein synthesis
synthesis of lipids
synthesis of polysaccharides
9. The prokaryotic flagella possess
unit membrane enclosed fibre
protein membrane enclosed fibre
9+2 membrane enclosed fibre
helically arranged protein molecule
10. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplasts and mitochondria is explained by
chemiosmotic theory
Munch's hypothesis (mass flow model)
relay pump theory of Godlewski
Cholodny Wont's model
Score =
Correct answers:
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