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AIPMT Biology Model Test

Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.AIPMT Test Questions
1. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
viability of sperm is determined by its motility
sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
2. In an area where DDT has been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because
birds stopped laying eggs
earthworms in the area got eradicated
cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
3. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for micropropagation?
Bark
node
vascular tissue
meristem
4. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from
soil insects
sugarcane rrots
small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize etc.
decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter
5. Which one of the following is not a part of transcription unit in DNA?
a promoter
the inducer
a terminator
the structural gene
6. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
vector
plasmid
selectable marker
probe
7. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
citric acid
ethanol
streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
blood cholesterol lowering statins
8. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
energy flow
stratification
productivity
decomposition
9. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
vomiting
indigestion
jaundice
diarrhoea
10. Which is true about ribosomes?
the prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where S stands for sedimentation coefficient.
therse are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
these are found only in eukaryotic cells
these are self splicing introns of some RNAs
11. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?
TTAGU
AACTG
UAGAC
CAGAU
12. Nuclear membrane is absent in
Agaricus
Volvox
Nostoc
Pencillium
13. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
nucloeplasm
lysosomes
ribosomes
nucleolus
14. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Passive transport of nutrients- ATP
Apoplast- Plasmodesmata
Bakane of rice seedlings - F.Skoog
Potassium- Readily immobilisation
15. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
Eastern ghats
Gangetic Plain
Sunderbens
Western ghats
16. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardinal infarction is normally immediately given
Pencillin
Statins
Cyclosporin A
Streptokinase
17. The highest number of species amongst the following in the world is represented by
fungi
algae
lichens
mosses
18. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are secretory source of
glucagon
progesterone
androgens
intestinal mucus
19. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
it is isolated from a virus
it remains active at high temperature
it serves as a selectable marker
it is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
20. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chrnonic intake of
opium
cocain
alcohol
tobacco
Score =
Correct answers:
Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.AIPMT Test Questions
1. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
viability of sperm is determined by its motility
sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
2. In an area where DDT has been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because
birds stopped laying eggs
earthworms in the area got eradicated
cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
3. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for micropropagation?
Bark
node
vascular tissue
meristem
4. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from
soil insects
sugarcane rrots
small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize etc.
decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter
5. Which one of the following is not a part of transcription unit in DNA?
a promoter
the inducer
a terminator
the structural gene
6. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
vector
plasmid
selectable marker
probe
7. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
citric acid
ethanol
streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
blood cholesterol lowering statins
8. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
energy flow
stratification
productivity
decomposition
9. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
vomiting
indigestion
jaundice
diarrhoea
10. Which is true about ribosomes?
the prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where S stands for sedimentation coefficient.
therse are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
these are found only in eukaryotic cells
these are self splicing introns of some RNAs
11. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?
TTAGU
AACTG
UAGAC
CAGAU
12. Nuclear membrane is absent in
Agaricus
Volvox
Nostoc
Pencillium
13. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
nucloeplasm
lysosomes
ribosomes
nucleolus
14. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Passive transport of nutrients- ATP
Apoplast- Plasmodesmata
Bakane of rice seedlings - F.Skoog
Potassium- Readily immobilisation
15. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
Eastern ghats
Gangetic Plain
Sunderbens
Western ghats
16. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardinal infarction is normally immediately given
Pencillin
Statins
Cyclosporin A
Streptokinase
17. The highest number of species amongst the following in the world is represented by
fungi
algae
lichens
mosses
18. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are secretory source of
glucagon
progesterone
androgens
intestinal mucus
19. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
it is isolated from a virus
it remains active at high temperature
it serves as a selectable marker
it is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
20. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chrnonic intake of
opium
cocain
alcohol
tobacco
Score =
Correct answers:
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MCQ Quiz on Microbes in Human Welfare

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Microbes in Human Welfare’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. What is true about Bt toxin?
Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
the concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
the activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevents its multipliccation
the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut
2. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
textile - amylase
alcohol - nitrogenase
detergents - lipase
fruit juice - pectinase
3. Which of the following is not is wrongly matched?
Trichoderma harzianum
Bacillus thuringiesis
NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus)
Xanthomonas campestris
4. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer because, it
multiples very fast to produce massive biomass
has association of nitrogen fixing Rhizobium
has association of mycorrhiza
has association of nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
5. Chloromycetin is obtained from
Bacillus subtilis
Clostridium botulinum
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces venezuelae
6. The nitrifying bacteria that convert the ammonia to nitrate is
Azotobacter
Nitosomonas and Nitrobacter
Rhizobium
Thiobacillus dentrificans
7. The rotenone is
a natural herbicide
an insect hormone
a bioherbicide
a natural insecticide
8. The organism used for alcoholic fermentation is
Aspergillus
Saccharomyces
Pencillium
Pseudomonas
9. First vitamin to be produced through fermentation process using a wild bacterium was
Vitamin D
Vitamin C
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
10. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is widely used in contemporary biology as
insecticide
indicator of water pollution
source of industrial enzyme
agent for production of dairy products
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Microbes in Human Welfare’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. What is true about Bt toxin?
Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
the concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
the activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevents its multipliccation
the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut
2. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
textile - amylase
alcohol - nitrogenase
detergents - lipase
fruit juice - pectinase
3. Which of the following is not is wrongly matched?
Trichoderma harzianum
Bacillus thuringiesis
NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus)
Xanthomonas campestris
4. Azolla is used as a biofertilizer because, it
multiples very fast to produce massive biomass
has association of nitrogen fixing Rhizobium
has association of mycorrhiza
has association of nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
5. Chloromycetin is obtained from
Bacillus subtilis
Clostridium botulinum
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces venezuelae
6. The nitrifying bacteria that convert the ammonia to nitrate is
Azotobacter
Nitosomonas and Nitrobacter
Rhizobium
Thiobacillus dentrificans
7. The rotenone is
a natural herbicide
an insect hormone
a bioherbicide
a natural insecticide
8. The organism used for alcoholic fermentation is
Aspergillus
Saccharomyces
Pencillium
Pseudomonas
9. First vitamin to be produced through fermentation process using a wild bacterium was
Vitamin D
Vitamin C
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
10. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is widely used in contemporary biology as
insecticide
indicator of water pollution
source of industrial enzyme
agent for production of dairy products
Score =
Correct answers:
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Practice Test on Economic Botany

This practice test is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Economic botany ’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Rauwolfia
1. The medicinally most important part of Rauwolfia serpentina ia
root
rhizome
aerial stem
all of these
2. Which part of coconut produces coir?
seed coat
epicarp
mesocarp
pericarp
3. Berch is obtained from
Guava
Mango
Eucalyptus
Betula
4. Which of the following is cultivated for carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
Arachis hypogea
Cajanus cajan
Ricinus communis
Cicer arietinum
5. Which of the following is the hardest wood?
Shorea robusta
Tectona gradis
Cedrus deodara
Dalbergia sissoo
6. Which one yields resin, timber and pulp?
Dalbergia
Pinus
Eucalyptus
Quercus
7. Jute is obtained from
primary xylem
primary phloem
secondary xylem
secondary phloem
8. Epidermal seed fibres are obtained from
cotton
coconut
Crotolaria juncea
none of these
9. Which of the following is a pseudocereal?
Zea mays
Oryza sativa
Triticum aestivum
Fagopyrum esculentum
10. Which of the following is surface fibre?
coir
sunhemp
cotton
all of these
Score =
Correct answers:
This practice test is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Economic botany ’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Rauwolfia
1. The medicinally most important part of Rauwolfia serpentina ia
root
rhizome
aerial stem
all of these
2. Which part of coconut produces coir?
seed coat
epicarp
mesocarp
pericarp
3. Berch is obtained from
Guava
Mango
Eucalyptus
Betula
4. Which of the following is cultivated for carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
Arachis hypogea
Cajanus cajan
Ricinus communis
Cicer arietinum
5. Which of the following is the hardest wood?
Shorea robusta
Tectona gradis
Cedrus deodara
Dalbergia sissoo
6. Which one yields resin, timber and pulp?
Dalbergia
Pinus
Eucalyptus
Quercus
7. Jute is obtained from
primary xylem
primary phloem
secondary xylem
secondary phloem
8. Epidermal seed fibres are obtained from
cotton
coconut
Crotolaria juncea
none of these
9. Which of the following is a pseudocereal?
Zea mays
Oryza sativa
Triticum aestivum
Fagopyrum esculentum
10. Which of the following is surface fibre?
coir
sunhemp
cotton
all of these
Score =
Correct answers:
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Practice Test on Fungi

This practice test is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Fungi’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Mushroom
1. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants?
Fusarium
Colletotrichum
Aspergillus
All of these
2. Which of the following statements is true about fungi imperfecti?
They include species that prey only on nematodes
They include toadstools and puffballs
They do not have sexual phase
They include Aspergillus, the fungus used to make soya sauce
3. The edible part of mushroom
basidiocarp
primary mycelium
fungal hyphae
basidiospores
4. Fungal spores produced asexually at the top of hyphae are
oidia
condia
aplanospores
sporangiophore
5. Fungi differ from other kingdoms in being
multicellular consumers
unicellular decomposers
unicellular decomposers
multicellular decomposers
6. Clamp connections are observed in
ascomycetes
oomycetes
zygomycetes
basidiomycetes
7. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in human belongs to the same kingdom organisms as that of
Taenia, a tapeworm
Ascaris, a round worm
Rhizopus, a mould
Wucherehia, a filiarial worm
8. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycete?
Puffballs and Claviceps
Bird's nest fungi and Puffballs
Morchella and Mushroom
Peziza and Stink horns
9. For Mucor zygospore
is thick walled resting spore
is haploid in structure
result of asexual reproduction
germinates to form zoospores
10. Columella is a specialized sterile structure found in the sporangium of
Ulothrix
Rhizopus
Spirogyra
None of these
Score =
Correct answers:
This practice test is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Fungi’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Mushroom
1. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants?
Fusarium
Colletotrichum
Aspergillus
All of these
2. Which of the following statements is true about fungi imperfecti?
They include species that prey only on nematodes
They include toadstools and puffballs
They do not have sexual phase
They include Aspergillus, the fungus used to make soya sauce
3. The edible part of mushroom
basidiocarp
primary mycelium
fungal hyphae
basidiospores
4. Fungal spores produced asexually at the top of hyphae are
oidia
condia
aplanospores
sporangiophore
5. Fungi differ from other kingdoms in being
multicellular consumers
unicellular decomposers
unicellular decomposers
multicellular decomposers
6. Clamp connections are observed in
ascomycetes
oomycetes
zygomycetes
basidiomycetes
7. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in human belongs to the same kingdom organisms as that of
Taenia, a tapeworm
Ascaris, a round worm
Rhizopus, a mould
Wucherehia, a filiarial worm
8. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycete?
Puffballs and Claviceps
Bird's nest fungi and Puffballs
Morchella and Mushroom
Peziza and Stink horns
9. For Mucor zygospore
is thick walled resting spore
is haploid in structure
result of asexual reproduction
germinates to form zoospores
10. Columella is a specialized sterile structure found in the sporangium of
Ulothrix
Rhizopus
Spirogyra
None of these
Score =
Correct answers:
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Biotic Interactions MCQ Quiz

This ecology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biotic Interactions’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Sea anemone and Hermit crab
1. Most interacting population are
symbiotic
parasitic
co evolved
mutualistic
2. The competitive exclusion principle was first described, by Gause, for species of
Mice
Birds
Grass
Protozoa
3. Territoriality occurs as a result of
predation
symbiotism
parasitism
competition
4. Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions
+, +
+, 0
-, -
+, -
5. The association between hermit crab and sea anemone is
symbiosis
parasitism
commensalism
proto cooperation
6. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as
predation
commensalism
parasitism
predation
7. If the stronger partner is benefited and the weak partner is damaged, it is known as
predation
alleopathy
symbiosis
commensalism
8. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent
mutualism
co evolution
coperation
commensalism
9. The extinction of Abingdon tortoise is an example of
parasitism
predation
amensalism
competition
10. Mode of nutrition by killing the host is called
predation
parasitism
amensalism
symbiosis
Score =
Correct answers:
This ecology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biotic Interactions’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Sea anemone and Hermit crab
1. Most interacting population are
symbiotic
parasitic
co evolved
mutualistic
2. The competitive exclusion principle was first described, by Gause, for species of
Mice
Birds
Grass
Protozoa
3. Territoriality occurs as a result of
predation
symbiotism
parasitism
competition
4. Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions
+, +
+, 0
-, -
+, -
5. The association between hermit crab and sea anemone is
symbiosis
parasitism
commensalism
proto cooperation
6. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as
predation
commensalism
parasitism
predation
7. If the stronger partner is benefited and the weak partner is damaged, it is known as
predation
alleopathy
symbiosis
commensalism
8. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent
mutualism
co evolution
coperation
commensalism
9. The extinction of Abingdon tortoise is an example of
parasitism
predation
amensalism
competition
10. Mode of nutrition by killing the host is called
predation
parasitism
amensalism
symbiosis
Score =
Correct answers:
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Biological Databases MCQ Quiz

This bioinformatics quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biological Databases’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biological Databases
1. Which of the following is a protein structure database
Genbank
Swiss-Prot
DDBJ
PDB
2. Which of the following is the first biological database
Genbank
DDBJ
Atlas of Protein sequence and structure
OMIM
3. GenBank is maintained by
EBI
NIG
NCBI
SIB
4. All are nucleotide sequence databases except
SwissProt
EMBL
DDBJ
GenBank
5. BankIt and Sequin are sequence submission tools in
DDBJ
PDB
GenBank
EMBL
6. STAG is a text based search centre of
DDBJ
GenBank
PIR
EMBL
7. Which of of the following is the search and retrieval tool of NCBI
SAKURA
SRS
Seqin
Entrez
8. Which of the following is a metabololic database
PIR
PDB
KEGG
OMIM
9. Which is the sequence submission system in EMBL
Entrez
Webin
Sakura
Seqin
10. Nucleotide sequence submission system and Mass Submission system are submission tools of
GenBank
DDBJ
EMBL
UniProt
Score =
Correct answers:
This bioinformatics quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Biological Databases’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Biological Databases
1. Which of the following is a protein structure database
Genbank
Swiss-Prot
DDBJ
PDB
2. Which of the following is the first biological database
Genbank
DDBJ
Atlas of Protein sequence and structure
OMIM
3. GenBank is maintained by
EBI
NIG
NCBI
SIB
4. All are nucleotide sequence databases except
SwissProt
EMBL
DDBJ
GenBank
5. BankIt and Sequin are sequence submission tools in
DDBJ
PDB
GenBank
EMBL
6. STAG is a text based search centre of
DDBJ
GenBank
PIR
EMBL
7. Which of of the following is the search and retrieval tool of NCBI
SAKURA
SRS
Seqin
Entrez
8. Which of the following is a metabololic database
PIR
PDB
KEGG
OMIM
9. Which is the sequence submission system in EMBL
Entrez
Webin
Sakura
Seqin
10. Nucleotide sequence submission system and Mass Submission system are submission tools of
GenBank
DDBJ
EMBL
UniProt
Score =
Correct answers:
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Plant Tissue Culture MCQ Quiz

Tissue culture
This biotechnology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Plant Tissue Culture’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Totipotency means
flowering in culture medium
development of fruit from a flower in a culture
development of an organ from a cell in culture medium
all of these
2. Haploid plants can be obtained from
bud culture
leaf culture
root culture
anther culture
3. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to
cellular totipotency
organogenesis
double fertlization
test tube culture
4. In plant tissue culture, which of the following shows totipotency?
meristem
sieve tube
xylem vessel
collenchyma
5. In tissue culture of parenchyma, mitosis is accelerated in the presence of
auxin only
cytokinin only
auxin and cytokinin
auxin and gibberellin
6. In plant tissue culture, the callus tissues can be regenerated into complete plantlets primarily by altering the concentration of
sugars
vitamins
amino acids
hormones
7. A major application of embryo culture is in
clonal propagation
production of embryoids
overcoming hybridisation barriers
induction of somaclonal variations
8. The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be overcome by
spraying auxins
spraying cytokinins
suspension culture
subculture
9. The final stage in the tissue culture programme before the new plants are taken out for cultivation in the fields is known as
hardening
micropropagation
caulogenesis
embryogenesis
10. Somaclonal variation appears in plants
growing in polluted soil or water
exposed to gamma rays
raised in tissue culture
transformed by recombinant DNA technology
Score =
Correct answers:
Tissue culture
This biotechnology quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Plant Tissue Culture’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Totipotency means
flowering in culture medium
development of fruit from a flower in a culture
development of an organ from a cell in culture medium
all of these
2. Haploid plants can be obtained from
bud culture
leaf culture
root culture
anther culture
3. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to
cellular totipotency
organogenesis
double fertlization
test tube culture
4. In plant tissue culture, which of the following shows totipotency?
meristem
sieve tube
xylem vessel
collenchyma
5. In tissue culture of parenchyma, mitosis is accelerated in the presence of
auxin only
cytokinin only
auxin and cytokinin
auxin and gibberellin
6. In plant tissue culture, the callus tissues can be regenerated into complete plantlets primarily by altering the concentration of
sugars
vitamins
amino acids
hormones
7. A major application of embryo culture is in
clonal propagation
production of embryoids
overcoming hybridisation barriers
induction of somaclonal variations
8. The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be overcome by
spraying auxins
spraying cytokinins
suspension culture
subculture
9. The final stage in the tissue culture programme before the new plants are taken out for cultivation in the fields is known as
hardening
micropropagation
caulogenesis
embryogenesis
10. Somaclonal variation appears in plants
growing in polluted soil or water
exposed to gamma rays
raised in tissue culture
transformed by recombinant DNA technology
Score =
Correct answers:
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Pollination MCQ Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Pollination’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.pollination
1. Hypohydrophily is found in
Pinus
Vallinsneria
Zostera
Cannabis
2. Pollination by ants is termed as
anemophily
myrmecophily
malacophily
entamophily
3. Cross pollination facilitated by dichogamy is found in
Solanum
Clerodendron
Gossypium
all of these
4. Pollination by snakes is known as
malacophily
ophiophily
myrmecophily
zoophily
5. Which of the following devices aids cross pollination in the flowers of Calotropis?
Heterostyly
Herkogamy
Prepotency
all of these
6. ---- is associated with reduction in number of ovules per ovary.
Hydrophily
Ornithophily
Anemophily
Entamophily
7. Wax coated pollen grains are found in
ornithophilous plants
hydrophilous plants
ornithrophilous plants
none of these
8. Wind pollination is common in
legumes
orchids
grasses
lilies
9. Anemophilous flowers have
sesslie stigma
large feathery stigma
coloured flower
small. smooth stigma
10. Which one of the following pollinations is autogamous?
Geitonogamy
Chasmogamy
Xenogamy
Clesistogamy
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Pollination’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.pollination
1. Hypohydrophily is found in
Pinus
Vallinsneria
Zostera
Cannabis
2. Pollination by ants is termed as
anemophily
myrmecophily
malacophily
entamophily
3. Cross pollination facilitated by dichogamy is found in
Solanum
Clerodendron
Gossypium
all of these
4. Pollination by snakes is known as
malacophily
ophiophily
myrmecophily
zoophily
5. Which of the following devices aids cross pollination in the flowers of Calotropis?
Heterostyly
Herkogamy
Prepotency
all of these
6. ---- is associated with reduction in number of ovules per ovary.
Hydrophily
Ornithophily
Anemophily
Entamophily
7. Wax coated pollen grains are found in
ornithophilous plants
hydrophilous plants
ornithrophilous plants
none of these
8. Wind pollination is common in
legumes
orchids
grasses
lilies
9. Anemophilous flowers have
sesslie stigma
large feathery stigma
coloured flower
small. smooth stigma
10. Which one of the following pollinations is autogamous?
Geitonogamy
Chasmogamy
Xenogamy
Clesistogamy
Score =
Correct answers:
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DNA Fingerprinting or DNA Profiling MCQ Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘DNA Fingerprinting or DNA Profiling’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA fingerprinting
1. DNA fingerprinting was developed by
Watson and Crick
Yamanaka
Alec Jeffrey
Paul Berg
2. Which of the following technique is used in DNA fingerprinting
Western blotting
Flow cytometry
Northern blotting
Southern blotting
3. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying specific
coding sequences
non-coding sequences
both a and b
promoters
4. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying minisatellites which are
repetitive coding short DNA sequences
repetitive non-coding short DNA sequences
repetitive coding and non-coding short DNA sequences
non-repetitive non-coding short DNA sequences
5. Which of the following is true regarding minisatellites
rich in GC pairs
individuals vary in size, number and location of these minisatellites
also called as VNTRs
all of these
6. Multilocus probes used in DNA fingerprinting are
short length of DNA that binds to target DNA at several places
RNA probes
long length of DNA that binds to target DNA at a single point
RNA and DNA probes
7. Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a sample is called
probes
markers
VNTRs
minisatellites
8. All are applications of DNA fingerprinting except
in forensic science
to settle disputed parentage
to amplify a minisatellite
diagnosis of inherited disorders
9. Which types of probes are commonly used in forensic science
multilocus probes
singlelocus probes
both a and b
RNA probes
10. Arrange DNA finger printing procedure in the correct order
1-restriction digestion 2-DNA isolation 3-electrophoresis4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-electrophoresis 3- restriction digestion4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-restriction digestion 3-electrophoresis4-probe hybridization 5-Southern blotting-6- autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-restriction digestion 3-electrophoresis 4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘DNA Fingerprinting or DNA Profiling’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA fingerprinting
1. DNA fingerprinting was developed by
Watson and Crick
Yamanaka
Alec Jeffrey
Paul Berg
2. Which of the following technique is used in DNA fingerprinting
Western blotting
Flow cytometry
Northern blotting
Southern blotting
3. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying specific
coding sequences
non-coding sequences
both a and b
promoters
4. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying minisatellites which are
repetitive coding short DNA sequences
repetitive non-coding short DNA sequences
repetitive coding and non-coding short DNA sequences
non-repetitive non-coding short DNA sequences
5. Which of the following is true regarding minisatellites
rich in GC pairs
individuals vary in size, number and location of these minisatellites
also called as VNTRs
all of these
6. Multilocus probes used in DNA fingerprinting are
short length of DNA that binds to target DNA at several places
RNA probes
long length of DNA that binds to target DNA at a single point
RNA and DNA probes
7. Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a sample is called
probes
markers
VNTRs
minisatellites
8. All are applications of DNA fingerprinting except
in forensic science
to settle disputed parentage
to amplify a minisatellite
diagnosis of inherited disorders
9. Which types of probes are commonly used in forensic science
multilocus probes
singlelocus probes
both a and b
RNA probes
10. Arrange DNA finger printing procedure in the correct order
1-restriction digestion 2-DNA isolation 3-electrophoresis4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-electrophoresis 3- restriction digestion4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-restriction digestion 3-electrophoresis4-probe hybridization 5-Southern blotting-6- autoradiograph
1-DNA isolation 2-restriction digestion 3-electrophoresis 4-southern blotting 5-probe hybridization-6) autoradiograph
Score =
Correct answers:
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Quiz on DNA, RNA and Protein (Basics)

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘DNA, RNA and Protein’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers
DNA and RNA
1. The building blocks of DNA and RNA is called
nucleosides
nucleotides
aminoacids
nitrogenous bases
2. Amino acids are the building blocks of
proteins
DNA
RNA
carbohydrates
3. Adjacent amino acids are joined by
ionic bond
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
peptide bond
4. The linkage between two nucleotides is called
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
phosphotriester bond
hydrophobic bond
5. Nucleic acids are
positively charged
negatively charged
neutral
both a and b
6. A nucleotide consists of
sugar+phosphate+amino acids
sugar+sulphate+amino acids
sugar+phosphate+nitrogenous bases
deoxyribose sugar
7. In nucleotides, sugar is attached to the nitrogenous bases by
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
glycosidic bond
ionic bond
8. The number of peptide bonds in a tri peptide is
1
2
3
4
9. In DNA double helix, nitrogenous bases that connects the two strands are joined by
hydrogen bond
hydrophobic bond
phosphodiester bond
glycosidic bond
10. The charge of a polypeptide is
positive
negative
depends on the constituent amino acids
nuetral
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘DNA, RNA and Protein’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers
DNA and RNA
1. The building blocks of DNA and RNA is called
nucleosides
nucleotides
aminoacids
nitrogenous bases
2. Amino acids are the building blocks of
proteins
DNA
RNA
carbohydrates
3. Adjacent amino acids are joined by
ionic bond
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
peptide bond
4. The linkage between two nucleotides is called
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
phosphotriester bond
hydrophobic bond
5. Nucleic acids are
positively charged
negatively charged
neutral
both a and b
6. A nucleotide consists of
sugar+phosphate+amino acids
sugar+sulphate+amino acids
sugar+phosphate+nitrogenous bases
deoxyribose sugar
7. In nucleotides, sugar is attached to the nitrogenous bases by
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
glycosidic bond
ionic bond
8. The number of peptide bonds in a tri peptide is
1
2
3
4
9. In DNA double helix, nitrogenous bases that connects the two strands are joined by
hydrogen bond
hydrophobic bond
phosphodiester bond
glycosidic bond
10. The charge of a polypeptide is
positive
negative
depends on the constituent amino acids
nuetral
Score =
Correct answers:
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Monocot Stem Labelled MCQ Quiz

Monocot stem labelling quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in Monocot stem. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Monocot stem labelled
1. Single layered without hair
Endodermis
Epidermis
Hypodermis
Pericycle
2. ---scattered, throughout the ground tissue
Pith
Pericycle
Vascular bundles
Cortex
3. ---- is small and composed of only sieve tubes and companion cells
Xylem tissue
Epidermis
Ground tissue
Phloem tissue
4. --- vessels arranged in V or Y shaped manner
Xylem
Phloem
Cortex
None of these
5. --- is parenchymatous with profuse intercellular spaces
Hypodermis
Ground tissue
Vascular bundles
Cortex
Score =
Correct answers:
Monocot stem labelling quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in Monocot stem. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.Monocot stem labelled
1. Single layered without hair
Endodermis
Epidermis
Hypodermis
Pericycle
2. ---scattered, throughout the ground tissue
Pith
Pericycle
Vascular bundles
Cortex
3. ---- is small and composed of only sieve tubes and companion cells
Xylem tissue
Epidermis
Ground tissue
Phloem tissue
4. --- vessels arranged in V or Y shaped manner
Xylem
Phloem
Cortex
None of these
5. --- is parenchymatous with profuse intercellular spaces
Hypodermis
Ground tissue
Vascular bundles
Cortex
Score =
Correct answers:
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Compound Microscope Parts and Functions Diagram Quiz

This picture quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Microscope’. Identify the parts that match with the description in the question. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Microscope
1. Identify the microscope type in the above figure
simple microscope
binocular microscope
compound microscope
simple dissecting microscope
2. In the figure, labeled ‘F’ is involved in the magnification and improvement of primary image produced. It is called the
Objective
eye piece
diaphragm
stage
3. In the figure ‘J’ is the mirror which has
a plain side and a convex side
a plain side and a concave side
a concave side and a convex side
a plain mirror on both sides
4. The parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are meant for focusing the objects. ‘A’ is for getting the focusing approximately done and ‘B’ is used to make the focusing exact. The parts A and B are
A-Objective, B-eye piece
A-eye piece, B- Objective
A-coarse adjustment, B-fine adjustment
A-fine adjustment, B-coarse adjustment
5. The part labeled ‘C’ is for holding the microscope. It is called as
body
body tube
stage
arm
6. It is used to control the amount of light passes through the condenser. In the figure, the part labeled ‘I’ is the
concave mirror
condenser
diaphragm
nose piece
7. This lenses are of short focal length intended to produce magnified primary image of the object. The part labeled ‘G’ is
ocular
eye piece
objectives
diaphragm
8. It is the horizontal platform where the glass slide with the material is placed. The part labeled ‘H’ is the
stage with stage clips
body tube with the objectives
nose piece with the ocular
condenser and the diaphragm
9. The part labeled ‘K’ is meant for concentrating light to the object from the mirror below. It is the
diaphragm
Objective
mirror
condenser
10. It is the expanded two armed horse-shoe shaped region that supports the microscope. The part labeled ‘E’ is
foot or base
stage
nose piece
body tube
11. It is the vertical hollow tube that carries the objectives and the eye piece at a convenient distance. The part labeled ‘D’ is
stage
body tube
foot
arm
12. The magnification of an object =
magnification of the eye piece + magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece X magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece - magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece / magnification of the objective
Score =
Correct answers:
This picture quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in 'Microscope’. Identify the parts that match with the description in the question. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Microscope
1. Identify the microscope type in the above figure
simple microscope
binocular microscope
compound microscope
simple dissecting microscope
2. In the figure, labeled ‘F’ is involved in the magnification and improvement of primary image produced. It is called the
Objective
eye piece
diaphragm
stage
3. In the figure ‘J’ is the mirror which has
a plain side and a convex side
a plain side and a concave side
a concave side and a convex side
a plain mirror on both sides
4. The parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are meant for focusing the objects. ‘A’ is for getting the focusing approximately done and ‘B’ is used to make the focusing exact. The parts A and B are
A-Objective, B-eye piece
A-eye piece, B- Objective
A-coarse adjustment, B-fine adjustment
A-fine adjustment, B-coarse adjustment
5. The part labeled ‘C’ is for holding the microscope. It is called as
body
body tube
stage
arm
6. It is used to control the amount of light passes through the condenser. In the figure, the part labeled ‘I’ is the
concave mirror
condenser
diaphragm
nose piece
7. This lenses are of short focal length intended to produce magnified primary image of the object. The part labeled ‘G’ is
ocular
eye piece
objectives
diaphragm
8. It is the horizontal platform where the glass slide with the material is placed. The part labeled ‘H’ is the
stage with stage clips
body tube with the objectives
nose piece with the ocular
condenser and the diaphragm
9. The part labeled ‘K’ is meant for concentrating light to the object from the mirror below. It is the
diaphragm
Objective
mirror
condenser
10. It is the expanded two armed horse-shoe shaped region that supports the microscope. The part labeled ‘E’ is
foot or base
stage
nose piece
body tube
11. It is the vertical hollow tube that carries the objectives and the eye piece at a convenient distance. The part labeled ‘D’ is
stage
body tube
foot
arm
12. The magnification of an object =
magnification of the eye piece + magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece X magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece - magnification of the objective
magnification of the eye piece / magnification of the objective
Score =
Correct answers:
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Animal Kingdom Chordata MCQ Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Chordata’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Chordata
1. Pharyngeal gill slits are found in
dog fish
devil fis
cray fish
star fish
2. The ratite bird Emu is found in
India
Africa
Australia
South America
3. Mullerian duct is the
vagina
cervix
ureter
common urinogenetal duct in male
4. The jawless vertebrates are known as
Agnatha
Dipnoi
Osteichthyes
Chondrichthynes
5. Select the living fossil
Limulus
Latimeria
Peripatus
All of these
6. Retrogressive metamorphosis is found in
Cephalochordata
Urochordata
Echinodermata
Vertebrata
7. Femoral glands are found in
snake
lizard
alligator
rat
8. A vertebrate without hemoglobin in the blood
Gambusia
Aplochilus
Platycephalus
Chaenocephalus
9. Among the following, which one has the lower number of bones in the lower jaw?
fish
lizard
snake
dog
10. Coelom in vertebrates is
blastocoel
enterocoel
gastrocoel
schizocoel
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Chordata’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Chordata
1. Pharyngeal gill slits are found in
dog fish
devil fis
cray fish
star fish
2. The ratite bird Emu is found in
India
Africa
Australia
South America
3. Mullerian duct is the
vagina
cervix
ureter
common urinogenetal duct in male
4. The jawless vertebrates are known as
Agnatha
Dipnoi
Osteichthyes
Chondrichthynes
5. Select the living fossil
Limulus
Latimeria
Peripatus
All of these
6. Retrogressive metamorphosis is found in
Cephalochordata
Urochordata
Echinodermata
Vertebrata
7. Femoral glands are found in
snake
lizard
alligator
rat
8. A vertebrate without hemoglobin in the blood
Gambusia
Aplochilus
Platycephalus
Chaenocephalus
9. Among the following, which one has the lower number of bones in the lower jaw?
fish
lizard
snake
dog
10. Coelom in vertebrates is
blastocoel
enterocoel
gastrocoel
schizocoel
Score =
Correct answers:
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Animal Kingdom - Non Chordata MCQ Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Non Chordata’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Non chordata
1. The phenomenon diapause is exhibited by
porifera
crustacea
miriapoda
insects
2. Sponge which is given as a wedding gift in Japan
Euplectella
Leucosolenia
Hyalonema
Euspongia
3. Schistosoma is an endoparasite found in
intestine
lymph
vein
liver
4. Like nephridia to earthworm
flame cells to Fasciola
tube feet to Pila
Ink sac to Octopus
Cnidoblast to echinodermata
5. A distinct thorax is absent in
Spider
centipede
Prawn
Scorpion
6. Decaying of blood in the caecum of leech is prevented by
hirudin
saliva
bacteria
virus
7. The chemical that evokes the opening of the mouth in Hydra is
guanine
trypsin
glutathione
glutamic acid
8. Water vascular system in echinoderm is derived from
ectoderm
endoderm
coelom
Haemocoel
9. Which is common in earthworm, leech and prawn
coelom
ventral nerve cord
compound eyes
haemoglobin
10. An insect having 17 years of underground life is
Lepisma
Dragon fly
Cicada
Grillus
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Non Chordata’. Questions come under ‘easy’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Non chordata
1. The phenomenon diapause is exhibited by
porifera
crustacea
miriapoda
insects
2. Sponge which is given as a wedding gift in Japan
Euplectella
Leucosolenia
Hyalonema
Euspongia
3. Schistosoma is an endoparasite found in
intestine
lymph
vein
liver
4. Like nephridia to earthworm
flame cells to Fasciola
tube feet to Pila
Ink sac to Octopus
Cnidoblast to echinodermata
5. A distinct thorax is absent in
Spider
centipede
Prawn
Scorpion
6. Decaying of blood in the caecum of leech is prevented by
hirudin
saliva
bacteria
virus
7. The chemical that evokes the opening of the mouth in Hydra is
guanine
trypsin
glutathione
glutamic acid
8. Water vascular system in echinoderm is derived from
ectoderm
endoderm
coelom
Haemocoel
9. Which is common in earthworm, leech and prawn
coelom
ventral nerve cord
compound eyes
haemoglobin
10. An insect having 17 years of underground life is
Lepisma
Dragon fly
Cicada
Grillus
Score =
Correct answers:
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Principles of Inheritance and Variation MCQ Quiz

This genetics quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Principles of Inheritance and Variation’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA
1. The primary effect of gene for sickle cell anemia
sickle shaped blood corpuscles
Anemia
poor blood circulation
change in beta chain of hemoglobin
2. 'Theory of inheritance of the acquired character' was proposed by
Lamark
Darwin
Weinsmann
Correns
3. Double lines in pedigree analysis shows
Sex unspecified
Unaffected offspring
Consaguineous mating
Normal mating
4. Atavism means
Inheritance of a trait by mother
Inheritance of a trait by father
Siblings show common character
Inheritance of trait of a distinct ancestor not shown by the parents
5. Number of types of gametes produced by a mono hybrid is
1
2
3
4
6. Which one of the following is extranuclear inheritance
Maternal inheritance
Organelle inhertiance
Plastid inheritance
All of these
7. Pseudo alleles are
Genes with different loci where are very close producing related phenotypic effect
Gene with same loci and control same trait
Genes identical to other genes
Gene with different loci and control same trait
8. The total of all harmful and lethal genes which are present in individuals are called
Genome
Gene pool
Genetic drift
Genetic load
9. Mendel's law of purity of gametes was formulated on the basis of
Test cross
Back cross
Dihybrid cross
Reciprocal cross
10. If Red and White seed color shows a ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 in F2, it is due to:
Duplicate genes
Epistastic gene
Polygenic trait controlled by three genes
Polygenic trait controlled by two genes
Score =
Correct answers:
This genetics quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Principles of Inheritance and Variation’. Questions come under ‘medium’ category. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA
1. The primary effect of gene for sickle cell anemia
sickle shaped blood corpuscles
Anemia
poor blood circulation
change in beta chain of hemoglobin
2. 'Theory of inheritance of the acquired character' was proposed by
Lamark
Darwin
Weinsmann
Correns
3. Double lines in pedigree analysis shows
Sex unspecified
Unaffected offspring
Consaguineous mating
Normal mating
4. Atavism means
Inheritance of a trait by mother
Inheritance of a trait by father
Siblings show common character
Inheritance of trait of a distinct ancestor not shown by the parents
5. Number of types of gametes produced by a mono hybrid is
1
2
3
4
6. Which one of the following is extranuclear inheritance
Maternal inheritance
Organelle inhertiance
Plastid inheritance
All of these
7. Pseudo alleles are
Genes with different loci where are very close producing related phenotypic effect
Gene with same loci and control same trait
Genes identical to other genes
Gene with different loci and control same trait
8. The total of all harmful and lethal genes which are present in individuals are called
Genome
Gene pool
Genetic drift
Genetic load
9. Mendel's law of purity of gametes was formulated on the basis of
Test cross
Back cross
Dihybrid cross
Reciprocal cross
10. If Red and White seed color shows a ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 in F2, it is due to:
Duplicate genes
Epistastic gene
Polygenic trait controlled by three genes
Polygenic trait controlled by two genes
Score =
Correct answers:
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