QuizBiology.com

Quiz on Cancer (Oncology)

Cancer Quiz
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Oncology (Cancer)"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Oncogenes are specific sequences in DNA
That code for reverse transcriptase
when expressed produce cancer
which are tumor markers
trigger off differentiation process
2. All are oncogene products, except
Growth factors
Tyrosine kinase
Tumor necrosis factor
Interleukin 2
3. Oncogenes may be activated by all,except
promoter insertion
viral infection
reverse transcriptase
mutations in proto oncogene
4. Which is an anticancer drug?
Allopurinol
Acyclovir
6 mercaptopurine
Zidovudine
5. All the following are tumor markers, except
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Alpha fetoprotein
Tartrate labile acid phosphatase
Regan isozyme of alkaline phosphatase
6. Which malignancy results from the deletion of onco suppressor gene?
Multiple myeloma
Reinoblastoma
Lymphosarcoma
Bronchogenic carcinoma
7. All the following viruses are reported to have oncogenic, except:
Varicella
Human papilloma virus
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein Barr virus
8. Which is true with regard to p53?
it is an oncosuppressor gene product
it is an inducer of heme synthesis
It is an oncogene
none of these
9. All are correct with src oncogene, except:
oncogene product is localized in membrane
src product is a protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine
src DNA is seen in tumor tissue; not in normal cells
src gene is part of Rous sarcoma RNA virus
10. Which malignancy results from the deletion of oncosuppressor gene
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Retinoblastoma
Multiple myeloma
Lymphosarcoma
Score =
Correct answers:
Cancer Quiz
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Oncology (Cancer)"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. Oncogenes are specific sequences in DNA
That code for reverse transcriptase
when expressed produce cancer
which are tumor markers
trigger off differentiation process
2. All are oncogene products, except
Growth factors
Tyrosine kinase
Tumor necrosis factor
Interleukin 2
3. Oncogenes may be activated by all,except
promoter insertion
viral infection
reverse transcriptase
mutations in proto oncogene
4. Which is an anticancer drug?
Allopurinol
Acyclovir
6 mercaptopurine
Zidovudine
5. All the following are tumor markers, except
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Alpha fetoprotein
Tartrate labile acid phosphatase
Regan isozyme of alkaline phosphatase
6. Which malignancy results from the deletion of onco suppressor gene?
Multiple myeloma
Reinoblastoma
Lymphosarcoma
Bronchogenic carcinoma
7. All the following viruses are reported to have oncogenic, except:
Varicella
Human papilloma virus
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein Barr virus
8. Which is true with regard to p53?
it is an oncosuppressor gene product
it is an inducer of heme synthesis
It is an oncogene
none of these
9. All are correct with src oncogene, except:
oncogene product is localized in membrane
src product is a protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine
src DNA is seen in tumor tissue; not in normal cells
src gene is part of Rous sarcoma RNA virus
10. Which malignancy results from the deletion of oncosuppressor gene
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Retinoblastoma
Multiple myeloma
Lymphosarcoma
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Biochemistry Quiz on Enzymology (Enzymes)

This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Enzymology Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Enzymology Quiz

1. The enzyme:
increases total energy of activation
increase total energy of the product
decrease the energy of activation
increase the equilibrium constant
2. Co enzymes are:
colloidal protein molecules
different forms of the same enzyme
dialyzable, non ptotrien molecule
structural analongs of an ennyme
3. In enzyme kinetics, Vmax denotes
half the substrate concentration
substrate concnetration
the amount of an active enzyme
quantity of enzyme substrate complex
4. The KM value of an enzyme is:
the total enzyme concentration
The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
half the substrate concentration at maximal velocity
Dissociation constant of enzyme substrate complex
5. When substrate concentration is equal to Km value:
The reaction is now at equibrillium
Maximum velocity is achieved.
maximum enzyme moleules are taking part in the reaction
Half of the enzyme molecules are bound to the substrate molecules and the other half are free
6. In competitive inhibition:
Km is increased and Vmax is increased
Km is increased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is increased
7. Allosteric enzymes show all the following characteristics, except:
sigmoid kinetics
binding between substrate and regulatory sites
cooperative binding of the substrate
substrate binding site and regulatory site are different
8. Enzymes synthesized in inactive form are called:
Apoenzymes
coenzymes
proenzymes
none of these
9. A competitive inhibitor will affect the enzyme activity:
Decreasing Km value
increasing Vmax
precipitating the enzyme protein
irreversibly denaturing the enzymes
10. Digestive enzymes belong to the class:
Lysases
Ligases
Hydrolases
oxidoreductases
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Enzymology Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Enzymology Quiz

1. The enzyme:
increases total energy of activation
increase total energy of the product
decrease the energy of activation
increase the equilibrium constant
2. Co enzymes are:
colloidal protein molecules
different forms of the same enzyme
dialyzable, non ptotrien molecule
structural analongs of an ennyme
3. In enzyme kinetics, Vmax denotes
half the substrate concentration
substrate concnetration
the amount of an active enzyme
quantity of enzyme substrate complex
4. The KM value of an enzyme is:
the total enzyme concentration
The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
half the substrate concentration at maximal velocity
Dissociation constant of enzyme substrate complex
5. When substrate concentration is equal to Km value:
The reaction is now at equibrillium
Maximum velocity is achieved.
maximum enzyme moleules are taking part in the reaction
Half of the enzyme molecules are bound to the substrate molecules and the other half are free
6. In competitive inhibition:
Km is increased and Vmax is increased
Km is increased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is normal
Km is decreased and Vmax is increased
7. Allosteric enzymes show all the following characteristics, except:
sigmoid kinetics
binding between substrate and regulatory sites
cooperative binding of the substrate
substrate binding site and regulatory site are different
8. Enzymes synthesized in inactive form are called:
Apoenzymes
coenzymes
proenzymes
none of these
9. A competitive inhibitor will affect the enzyme activity:
Decreasing Km value
increasing Vmax
precipitating the enzyme protein
irreversibly denaturing the enzymes
10. Digestive enzymes belong to the class:
Lysases
Ligases
Hydrolases
oxidoreductases
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Diagram Quiz on DNA Structure

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "DNA structure"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA structure worksheet
1. Identify the termini labelled 1, 2 and 3 of the DNA strand, remember DNA strands are anti-parallel
3', 5', 3'
5'P, 3'OH, 5'P
5'P, 3'P, 5'OH
3'OH, 5'P, 3'OH
2. The building blocks of DNA which comprises of Sugar+ Nitrogenous base + Phosphate group, labelled 4 is
peptide
nucleoside
nucleotide
oligosaccharide
3. Write the correct bases labelled 5, 6 and 7, remember Chargaff's rule
guanine, cytosine and thymine
guanine, cytosine and uracil
Thymine, cytosine and uracil
Thymine, guanine and uracil
4. The bond that connects adjacent nucleotide labelled 8 is
peptide bond
phosphodiester bond
hydrogen bond
glycosidic bond
5. The nitrogenous bases on the two strands of DNA are joined by (labelled 9)
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
covalent bond
glycosidic bond
6. Sugar+ Nitrogenous bases together without phosphate labelled 10 is called
nucleotide
nucleoside
nucleic acid
peptde
7. The negative charge of DNA is due to the residue labelled 11, which is the
Sugar residue
Adenine base
thymine base
phosphate group
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "DNA structure"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
DNA structure worksheet
1. Identify the termini labelled 1, 2 and 3 of the DNA strand, remember DNA strands are anti-parallel
3', 5', 3'
5'P, 3'OH, 5'P
5'P, 3'P, 5'OH
3'OH, 5'P, 3'OH
2. The building blocks of DNA which comprises of Sugar+ Nitrogenous base + Phosphate group, labelled 4 is
peptide
nucleoside
nucleotide
oligosaccharide
3. Write the correct bases labelled 5, 6 and 7, remember Chargaff's rule
guanine, cytosine and thymine
guanine, cytosine and uracil
Thymine, cytosine and uracil
Thymine, guanine and uracil
4. The bond that connects adjacent nucleotide labelled 8 is
peptide bond
phosphodiester bond
hydrogen bond
glycosidic bond
5. The nitrogenous bases on the two strands of DNA are joined by (labelled 9)
hydrogen bond
phosphodiester bond
covalent bond
glycosidic bond
6. Sugar+ Nitrogenous bases together without phosphate labelled 10 is called
nucleotide
nucleoside
nucleic acid
peptde
7. The negative charge of DNA is due to the residue labelled 11, which is the
Sugar residue
Adenine base
thymine base
phosphate group
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Quiz on Vitamins

This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Vitamins’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Folic acid and Panthothenic acid are vitamin belonging to group
K
A
B complex
D
2. Richest source of B12
Rice and egg
Chocolate and green grains
Goat liver and Spirulina
Carrot and chicken beast
3. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
Nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3)
Panthothenic acid
Folic acid
Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
4. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B2
5. Nyctalopia (Night Blindness) is caused by deficiency of
A
D
E
B12
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your basic knowledge in ‘Vitamins’. Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Get score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Folic acid and Panthothenic acid are vitamin belonging to group
K
A
B complex
D
2. Richest source of B12
Rice and egg
Chocolate and green grains
Goat liver and Spirulina
Carrot and chicken beast
3. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
Nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3)
Panthothenic acid
Folic acid
Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
4. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B2
5. Nyctalopia (Night Blindness) is caused by deficiency of
A
D
E
B12
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Quiz on Electron Microscope

This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Electron Microscope Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
POLLEN GRAINS TAKEN ON SEM

1. Which of the following scientists is credited with the invention of the electron microscope and awarded the Nobel Prize for the same?
J.J. Thompson
Ernst Ruska
Louise de Broglie
Otto van Borris
2. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)?
Electrons are negatively charged
Electrons have a wave nature
Electrons have no mass
Electrons have a poor penetrating power
3. Osmium tetra oxide is used in electron microscopy as a
Precipitator
Mordant
Staining agent
Fixing agent
4. Which instrument is more useful to study the surface details of a specimen?
Phase contrast Microscope
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
Light Microscope
Transition Electron Microscope(TEM)
5. All of the following are true for both Transition Electron Microscope(TEM) and Scanning Electron Microscope(SEM) except
The illuminating source is an electron beam
The microscope is focused using electromagnetic
Can be used to view specimens smaller than 0.2 micrometers
The specimen must be sectioned prior to viewing
Score =
Correct answers:
Read more: SEM vs TEM
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Electron Microscope Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
POLLEN GRAINS TAKEN ON SEM

1. Which of the following scientists is credited with the invention of the electron microscope and awarded the Nobel Prize for the same?
J.J. Thompson
Ernst Ruska
Louise de Broglie
Otto van Borris
2. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)?
Electrons are negatively charged
Electrons have a wave nature
Electrons have no mass
Electrons have a poor penetrating power
3. Osmium tetra oxide is used in electron microscopy as a
Precipitator
Mordant
Staining agent
Fixing agent
4. Which instrument is more useful to study the surface details of a specimen?
Phase contrast Microscope
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
Light Microscope
Transition Electron Microscope(TEM)
5. All of the following are true for both Transition Electron Microscope(TEM) and Scanning Electron Microscope(SEM) except
The illuminating source is an electron beam
The microscope is focused using electromagnetic
Can be used to view specimens smaller than 0.2 micrometers
The specimen must be sectioned prior to viewing
Score =
Correct answers:
Read more: SEM vs TEM
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Biochemistry

This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Plant Biochemistry Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress
Histidine
Proline
Cysteine
Methionine
2. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly called
Hatch and Slack pathway
Glycolate pathway
EMP pathway
Shikimic acid pathway
3. Vincristine and vinblastine are
Phenolics
Saponins
Terpenoids
Alkaloids
4. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a
Pentose
Pyranose
Furanose
None of the above
5. ----- is an example for sulphur containing amino acid
Isoleucine
Glycine
Methionine
All of these
6. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants
Cholesterol
Stigmasterol
Sitosterol
Campesterol
7. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called
Dextran
Agarose
Silica
Acrylamide
8. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes
Zymogens
Isozymes
Allozymes
Abzymes
9. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination
Alanine
Lysine
Tryptophan
Glutamate
10. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar
Verbascose
Raffinose
Threose
Stachyose
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding about the "Plant Biochemistry Basics". Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress
Histidine
Proline
Cysteine
Methionine
2. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly called
Hatch and Slack pathway
Glycolate pathway
EMP pathway
Shikimic acid pathway
3. Vincristine and vinblastine are
Phenolics
Saponins
Terpenoids
Alkaloids
4. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a
Pentose
Pyranose
Furanose
None of the above
5. ----- is an example for sulphur containing amino acid
Isoleucine
Glycine
Methionine
All of these
6. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants
Cholesterol
Stigmasterol
Sitosterol
Campesterol
7. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called
Dextran
Agarose
Silica
Acrylamide
8. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes
Zymogens
Isozymes
Allozymes
Abzymes
9. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination
Alanine
Lysine
Tryptophan
Glutamate
10. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar
Verbascose
Raffinose
Threose
Stachyose
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Quiz on Paleobotany

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Paleobotany"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Rhynia belongs to a geological period
Devonian
Permean
Carboniferous
Cambrian
2. Which is known as fossil bryophyte
Riccia fluitans
Marchantia palmata
Marchantia polymorpha
Naiadita lanceolata

3. Birbal Sahni is popularly known as
Mycologist
Paleobotanist
Physiologist
Phycologist
4. Baragwanathia, a fossil pteridophyte was discovered from
Rajmahal hills of Bihar (India)
Silurian beds of Victoria (Austraila)
Rhynie chert beds (Scotland)
Mudstones near Gilboa (New york)
5. "Fossil beehives" is the name associated with fossil
Cycads
Coniferales
Ginkgoales
Bryophytes
6. Link between Isoetales and Carboniferous Lepidodendrales is
Sigilaria
Stigmaria
Pleuromia
Lycopodium
7. 'Gothania' are
Leaf genus of Cordaitales
Monosporangiate cones of Bennettiales
Fructifications of Pteridsperms
Fructifications of Cordaitales
8. Which of the following gymnosperm of Bennettiales (Cycadeodales) was recovered from Rajmahal hills by Prof Birbal Sahni
Sahnia
Williamsonia
Pentoxylon
Heterangium
9. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is
Ginkgo
Ephedra
Williamsonia
Lyginopteris
10. Zosterophyllum is a
Fossil algae
Fossil bryophyte
Fossil pteridophyte
Fossil gymnosperms
Score =
Correct answers:

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "Paleobotany"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Rhynia belongs to a geological period
Devonian
Permean
Carboniferous
Cambrian
2. Which is known as fossil bryophyte
Riccia fluitans
Marchantia palmata
Marchantia polymorpha
Naiadita lanceolata

3. Birbal Sahni is popularly known as
Mycologist
Paleobotanist
Physiologist
Phycologist
4. Baragwanathia, a fossil pteridophyte was discovered from
Rajmahal hills of Bihar (India)
Silurian beds of Victoria (Austraila)
Rhynie chert beds (Scotland)
Mudstones near Gilboa (New york)
5. "Fossil beehives" is the name associated with fossil
Cycads
Coniferales
Ginkgoales
Bryophytes
6. Link between Isoetales and Carboniferous Lepidodendrales is
Sigilaria
Stigmaria
Pleuromia
Lycopodium
7. 'Gothania' are
Leaf genus of Cordaitales
Monosporangiate cones of Bennettiales
Fructifications of Pteridsperms
Fructifications of Cordaitales
8. Which of the following gymnosperm of Bennettiales (Cycadeodales) was recovered from Rajmahal hills by Prof Birbal Sahni
Sahnia
Williamsonia
Pentoxylon
Heterangium
9. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is
Ginkgo
Ephedra
Williamsonia
Lyginopteris
10. Zosterophyllum is a
Fossil algae
Fossil bryophyte
Fossil pteridophyte
Fossil gymnosperms
Score =
Correct answers:

Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Quiz on Interesting Fungi Facts

This quiz is designed to make you aware some "fascinating facts about fungus"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amazing Fungi facts


1. The most common fungal resident of aeroplane fuel tank is
Penicillium notatum
Cladosporium resinae
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Cercospora arachidicola
2. Which of the following is the most deadliest mushroom?
Amanita muscaria
Trametes versicolor
Ganoderma lucidum
Amanita phalloides
3. The fungus called as the "Drosophila of the fungal world"
Neurospora crassa
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Aspergillus flexuosus
Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Irish Potato Famine of 1845–49 which killed more than one million people of Ireland was caused by the fungus
Pythium aphanidermatum
Pythium insidiosum
Phytophthora ramorum
Phytophthora infestans
5.The largest and the oldest living creature on earth is a fungus which covers 3.8 km across and weigh about 605 metric tons is
Armillaria ostoyae
Armillaria mellea
Armillaria borealis
A. luteobubalina
6. The fastest accelerating organism on Earth is a Fungus which happens during its spore dispersal. The fungus is
Pythium
Pilobolus
Phytophthora
Peziza
7. Which of the following is a bioluminescent (can glow in dark) fungus?
Amanita muscaria
Agaricus bisporus
Armillaria borealis
Panellus stipticus
8. The fungus behind the Roquefort cheese; one of the world's best known blue cheeses is
Saccharomyces
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Alternaria
9. Ergot alkaloids like ergotamine which is widely used as a medicine is obtained from
Rhizopus
Mucor
Claviceps
Cercospora
10. Which of the following is a symbiotic association of fungus with roots of higher plants?
Lichen
mycorrhiza
Sclerotia
All of these
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to make you aware some "fascinating facts about fungus"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Quiz on Amazing Fungi facts


1. The most common fungal resident of aeroplane fuel tank is
Penicillium notatum
Cladosporium resinae
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Cercospora arachidicola
2. Which of the following is the most deadliest mushroom?
Amanita muscaria
Trametes versicolor
Ganoderma lucidum
Amanita phalloides
3. The fungus called as the "Drosophila of the fungal world"
Neurospora crassa
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Aspergillus flexuosus
Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Irish Potato Famine of 1845–49 which killed more than one million people of Ireland was caused by the fungus
Pythium aphanidermatum
Pythium insidiosum
Phytophthora ramorum
Phytophthora infestans
5.The largest and the oldest living creature on earth is a fungus which covers 3.8 km across and weigh about 605 metric tons is
Armillaria ostoyae
Armillaria mellea
Armillaria borealis
A. luteobubalina
6. The fastest accelerating organism on Earth is a Fungus which happens during its spore dispersal. The fungus is
Pythium
Pilobolus
Phytophthora
Peziza
7. Which of the following is a bioluminescent (can glow in dark) fungus?
Amanita muscaria
Agaricus bisporus
Armillaria borealis
Panellus stipticus
8. The fungus behind the Roquefort cheese; one of the world's best known blue cheeses is
Saccharomyces
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Alternaria
9. Ergot alkaloids like ergotamine which is widely used as a medicine is obtained from
Rhizopus
Mucor
Claviceps
Cercospora
10. Which of the following is a symbiotic association of fungus with roots of higher plants?
Lichen
mycorrhiza
Sclerotia
All of these
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Plant Pathology Online Quiz

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "plant pathology"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis
magnesium
calcium
nitrogen
cobalt
2. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of
Nitrogen
Manganese
Sodium
Zinc
3. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus
Phytoalexin
Dystrophin
Amphylotoxin
Aflatoxin
4. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by
Agaricus
Penicillium
Puccinia
Rhizopus
5. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as
orange rust
black rust
green rust
yellow rust
6. Blast disease of rice is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Scleroticum oryzae
Pseudomonas oryzae
Helminthosporium oryzae
7. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuele
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces aureofaciens
8. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is
Insect transmitted
Root transmitted
Soil transmitted
Sap transmitted
9. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Phytophthora infestans
Colletotrichum falcatum
Xanthomaonas Oryzae
10. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called
Spot
Canker
Die-back
Scorch
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "plant pathology"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis
magnesium
calcium
nitrogen
cobalt
2. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of
Nitrogen
Manganese
Sodium
Zinc
3. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus
Phytoalexin
Dystrophin
Amphylotoxin
Aflatoxin
4. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by
Agaricus
Penicillium
Puccinia
Rhizopus
5. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as
orange rust
black rust
green rust
yellow rust
6. Blast disease of rice is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Scleroticum oryzae
Pseudomonas oryzae
Helminthosporium oryzae
7. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuele
Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces aureofaciens
8. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is
Insect transmitted
Root transmitted
Soil transmitted
Sap transmitted
9. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by
Piricularia oryzae
Phytophthora infestans
Colletotrichum falcatum
Xanthomaonas Oryzae
10. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called
Spot
Canker
Die-back
Scorch
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Quiz on Lichens

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Lichen"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Lichen Quiz

1. Lichens that are rock dwellers with xerophytic adaptations are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
2. If the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes, then called
ascomycetes
ascomycetes lichen
lichen
ascolichen
3. Terrestrial species that grow in soil are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
4. Leprose lichens are
crust like
leaf like
pendulous
scale like
5. Graphis is a
foliose lichen
fruticose lichen
crustose lichen
filamentous lichen
6. Which of the lichen is used to treat hydrophobia?
Peltigera
Cetraria
Cladonia
Graphis
7. Usnic acid, a broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from
Usnea
Cladonia
both Usnea and Cladonia
Usnea only
8. Which of the following lichen is called as the “reindeer moss” (food for reindeer)
Cetraria islandica
Cladonia rengiferina
Peltigera canina
Evernia
9. Which of the following lichen are the pioneers in xerosere
foliose lichens
leprose lichens
crustose lichens
fruticose lichen
10. Letharia vulpine is a poisonous lichen as they secrete
letharic acid
vulpinic acid
usnic acid
selinium
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Lichen"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Lichen Quiz

1. Lichens that are rock dwellers with xerophytic adaptations are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
2. If the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes, then called
ascomycetes
ascomycetes lichen
lichen
ascolichen
3. Terrestrial species that grow in soil are called
lignicolous
terricolous
saxicolous
corticolous
4. Leprose lichens are
crust like
leaf like
pendulous
scale like
5. Graphis is a
foliose lichen
fruticose lichen
crustose lichen
filamentous lichen
6. Which of the lichen is used to treat hydrophobia?
Peltigera
Cetraria
Cladonia
Graphis
7. Usnic acid, a broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from
Usnea
Cladonia
both Usnea and Cladonia
Usnea only
8. Which of the following lichen is called as the “reindeer moss” (food for reindeer)
Cetraria islandica
Cladonia rengiferina
Peltigera canina
Evernia
9. Which of the following lichen are the pioneers in xerosere
foliose lichens
leprose lichens
crustose lichens
fruticose lichen
10. Letharia vulpine is a poisonous lichen as they secrete
letharic acid
vulpinic acid
usnic acid
selinium
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Quiz on Greenhouse Effect

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Greenhouse effect"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Greenhouse effect animation
1. Why heat trapping by CO2, CH4 etc in the atmosphere is called 'green house effect'?
Garden Green house is permeable to both heat and sunlight
Garden Green house is impermeable to sunlight
Garden Green house is permeable to sunlight and impermeable to heat
Garden Green house is impermeable to both sunlight and heat
2. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
CO2, and CH4
CO2 and N2O
N and O
H2O and O3
3. Half of the green house effect is caused by
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
4. Which is the most potent green house gas in terms of efficiency?
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
5. The gradual rise in atmospheric temperature due to increase in green house gases is called
Green house effect
Global warming
ozone depletion
thermal hyperalgesia
6. Which of the following statement is false about green house effect?
Increased emission of green house gases is a natural process
Life on earth is possible due to green house effect
Increased emmision of green house gases in the atmosphere increases earths temperature
Green house effect is a natural process that maintains earth temperature
7. The proportion of CO2 emission by human activities that remains in the atmosphere after a specified time is called
green house emission
CO2 emission
airborne fraction
Annual CO2 emission
8. The largest human source of carbon dioxide emissions is from
burning of fossil fuels
deforestation
land degradation
agriculture
9. The largest single source of global greenhouse gas emissions is accounted by the economic sector
transportation
industry
electricity and heat generation
agriculture and deforestation
10. The major human sources of methane emissions are
Fossil fuel production and livestock farming
Fossil fuel production and biomass burning
Fossil fuel production and agriculture
Fossil fuel production and biofuels
Score =
Correct answers:

Image courtesy: https://www.environment.gov.au/climate-change/climate-science/greenhouse-effect
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Greenhouse effect"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Greenhouse effect animation
1. Why heat trapping by CO2, CH4 etc in the atmosphere is called 'green house effect'?
Garden Green house is permeable to both heat and sunlight
Garden Green house is impermeable to sunlight
Garden Green house is permeable to sunlight and impermeable to heat
Garden Green house is impermeable to both sunlight and heat
2. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
CO2, and CH4
CO2 and N2O
N and O
H2O and O3
3. Half of the green house effect is caused by
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
4. Which is the most potent green house gas in terms of efficiency?
CO2
CH4
N2O
CFC
5. The gradual rise in atmospheric temperature due to increase in green house gases is called
Green house effect
Global warming
ozone depletion
thermal hyperalgesia
6. Which of the following statement is false about green house effect?
Increased emission of green house gases is a natural process
Life on earth is possible due to green house effect
Increased emmision of green house gases in the atmosphere increases earths temperature
Green house effect is a natural process that maintains earth temperature
7. The proportion of CO2 emission by human activities that remains in the atmosphere after a specified time is called
green house emission
CO2 emission
airborne fraction
Annual CO2 emission
8. The largest human source of carbon dioxide emissions is from
burning of fossil fuels
deforestation
land degradation
agriculture
9. The largest single source of global greenhouse gas emissions is accounted by the economic sector
transportation
industry
electricity and heat generation
agriculture and deforestation
10. The major human sources of methane emissions are
Fossil fuel production and livestock farming
Fossil fuel production and biomass burning
Fossil fuel production and agriculture
Fossil fuel production and biofuels
Score =
Correct answers:

Image courtesy: https://www.environment.gov.au/climate-change/climate-science/greenhouse-effect
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Diagram Quiz on Nitrogen Cycle

This diagram quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Nitrogen cycle"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Nitrogen cycle

1. The major reservoir of Nitrogen is
atmosphere
soil
water
rocks
2. Biological Nitrogen fixation refers to the conversion of
atmospheric N2 to NO3- and NH3
atmospheric N2 to NO2
atmospheric N2 to NH3
atmospheric NH3 to NO3
3. Approximately 70% of all nitrogen fixed is through biological fixation. The nitrogen fixing bacterium that lives symbiotically in the roots nodules of leguminous plants labelled A is
Clostridium
Azotobacter
Rhizobium
Psuedomonas
4. Free living nitrogen fixers in soil labelled B, that helps in N2 fixation include
Azotobacter and Clostridium
Anabaena and Nostoc
Beijerinckia and Klebsiella
All of the above
5. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrate (NO3-), labelled C is called
Denitrification
Assimilation
Ammonification
Nitrification
6. Nitrite (NO2) is further oxidized and converted to nitrate (NO3) by a bacterium labelled D is
Nitrobacter
Pseudomonas
Acetobacter
Nitrosomonas
7. The plants absorb nitrates (NO3) from the soil and use them for the synthesis of proteins. The process labelled E is called
nitrification
assimilation
ammonification
Denitrification
8. The process labelled F where ammonium (NH4) is formed from amino acids by decomposers is
amination
nitrogen fixation
ammonification
nitrification
9. The process labelled G return part of fixed nitrogen back to the atmosphere by converting nitrates (NO3-) back to nitrogen gas (N2)is
denitrogen fixation
denitrification
nitrification
deamination
10. The bacteria involved in denitrification process include
Pseudomonas
Thiobacillus denitrificans
Micrococcus denitrificans
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
This diagram quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Nitrogen cycle"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
Nitrogen cycle

1. The major reservoir of Nitrogen is
atmosphere
soil
water
rocks
2. Biological Nitrogen fixation refers to the conversion of
atmospheric N2 to NO3- and NH3
atmospheric N2 to NO2
atmospheric N2 to NH3
atmospheric NH3 to NO3
3. Approximately 70% of all nitrogen fixed is through biological fixation. The nitrogen fixing bacterium that lives symbiotically in the roots nodules of leguminous plants labelled A is
Clostridium
Azotobacter
Rhizobium
Psuedomonas
4. Free living nitrogen fixers in soil labelled B, that helps in N2 fixation include
Azotobacter and Clostridium
Anabaena and Nostoc
Beijerinckia and Klebsiella
All of the above
5. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrate (NO3-), labelled C is called
Denitrification
Assimilation
Ammonification
Nitrification
6. Nitrite (NO2) is further oxidized and converted to nitrate (NO3) by a bacterium labelled D is
Nitrobacter
Pseudomonas
Acetobacter
Nitrosomonas
7. The plants absorb nitrates (NO3) from the soil and use them for the synthesis of proteins. The process labelled E is called
nitrification
assimilation
ammonification
Denitrification
8. The process labelled F where ammonium (NH4) is formed from amino acids by decomposers is
amination
nitrogen fixation
ammonification
nitrification
9. The process labelled G return part of fixed nitrogen back to the atmosphere by converting nitrates (NO3-) back to nitrogen gas (N2)is
denitrogen fixation
denitrification
nitrification
deamination
10. The bacteria involved in denitrification process include
Pseudomonas
Thiobacillus denitrificans
Micrococcus denitrificans
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Multiple Choice Questions on Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. In the diagram, the structure labelled A which forms the backbone of the plasma membrane is the
glycoprotein
lipid bilayer
carbohydrate
extrinsic protein
2. The bio molecule labelled B involved in recognition is
carbohydrate
glycoprotein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
3. It is loosely attached to the lipid bi layer and is hydrophilic. The component labelled C is
intrinsic protein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
4. Increased amount of compound labelled D decreases fluidity at 37oC. It is the
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
hydrophobic tail
globular proteins
5. The structure labelled E serves as transport channels or transmembrane channels. These are
integral proteins
peripheral proteins
extrinsic protein
phospholipid bilayer
6. Increased chain length of the bio molecule labelled F decreases membrane fluidity. This hydrophobic entity is the
cytoskeleton
hydrophobic tails
integral proteins
fatty acid chain
7. Carbohydrates bound to the peripheral protein labelled G is
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
glycoprotein
glycolipid
8. The most extensive hydrophilic region on the membrane labelled H is the
hydrophilic head group
hydrophilic phosphate group
hydrophilic carbohydrate
hydrophilic extrinsic proteins
9. The bio molecule labelled I which is in close association with lipid bi layer is the
glycoprotein
globular protein
hydrophilic carbohydrate
glycolipid
10. Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane was proposed by
S J Singer and Garth L Nicolson
Meselson and Stahl
Danielli and Davson
David Robertson
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.

1. In the diagram, the structure labelled A which forms the backbone of the plasma membrane is the
glycoprotein
lipid bilayer
carbohydrate
extrinsic protein
2. The bio molecule labelled B involved in recognition is
carbohydrate
glycoprotein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
3. It is loosely attached to the lipid bi layer and is hydrophilic. The component labelled C is
intrinsic protein
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
4. Increased amount of compound labelled D decreases fluidity at 37oC. It is the
hydrophilic head group
cholesterol
hydrophobic tail
globular proteins
5. The structure labelled E serves as transport channels or transmembrane channels. These are
integral proteins
peripheral proteins
extrinsic protein
phospholipid bilayer
6. Increased chain length of the bio molecule labelled F decreases membrane fluidity. This hydrophobic entity is the
cytoskeleton
hydrophobic tails
integral proteins
fatty acid chain
7. Carbohydrates bound to the peripheral protein labelled G is
extrinsic protein
hydrophilic head group
glycoprotein
glycolipid
8. The most extensive hydrophilic region on the membrane labelled H is the
hydrophilic head group
hydrophilic phosphate group
hydrophilic carbohydrate
hydrophilic extrinsic proteins
9. The bio molecule labelled I which is in close association with lipid bi layer is the
glycoprotein
globular protein
hydrophilic carbohydrate
glycolipid
10. Fluid Mosaic Model of Plasma Membrane was proposed by
S J Singer and Garth L Nicolson
Meselson and Stahl
Danielli and Davson
David Robertson
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

SAT Biology Practice Test Ecology Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT to be considered as a density-dependent factor affecting population size?
parasitism
tornado
disease epidemic
competition
predation
2. The role of a particular species within an ecosystem, including all of its interactions with both biotic and abiotic factors, is known as the species
habitat
habit
ecological niche
carrying capacity
environment
3. The interaction between termites and the particular strains of bacteria that live in their gut are considered as mutualistic. This type of interactions among species is characterized as
−/−.
+/0.
+/+.
−/0.
+/−.
4. Which of the following best describes a pattern of idealized population growth that is restricted by limiting factors?
carrying capacity model
logistic growth model
exponential growth model
dispersion model
habitat cap model
5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding species?
A population is a local subset of a species.
A species is one type of population.
A species is a local subset of a population.
A population encompasses many different species.
The terms population and species are interchangeable.
6. Which of the following terms best encompasses all of the populations of organisms living together and potentially interacting in an area?
biome
ecosystem
ecological niche
biological community
geographical community
7. The human population, from Stone Age times to the present, is best represented by
a normal distribution curve.
an exponential growth curve.
a logistic growth curve.
a bimodel distribution curve.
a random growth curve.
8. If a population exceeds the carrying capacity of the ecosystem, the most likely outcome would be
an increase in resources to meet its needs.
extinction of the species.
an eventual decline in population size.
a steady increase in population size.
maintenance of the current population size indefinitely
9. The use of specially bred strains of bacteria to clean up oil spills along beaches is an example of
ecological succession.
decomposition
bioremediation
eutrophication
primary succession
10. The two fundamental processes that govern the dynamics of an ecosystem are
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
the carbon cycle and photosynthesis
solar radiation and the carbon cycle
photosynthesis and respiration.
the nitrogen cycle and the phosphorous cycle.
Score =
Correct answers:
1. Which of the following is NOT to be considered as a density-dependent factor affecting population size?
parasitism
tornado
disease epidemic
competition
predation
2. The role of a particular species within an ecosystem, including all of its interactions with both biotic and abiotic factors, is known as the species
habitat
habit
ecological niche
carrying capacity
environment
3. The interaction between termites and the particular strains of bacteria that live in their gut are considered as mutualistic. This type of interactions among species is characterized as
−/−.
+/0.
+/+.
−/0.
+/−.
4. Which of the following best describes a pattern of idealized population growth that is restricted by limiting factors?
carrying capacity model
logistic growth model
exponential growth model
dispersion model
habitat cap model
5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding species?
A population is a local subset of a species.
A species is one type of population.
A species is a local subset of a population.
A population encompasses many different species.
The terms population and species are interchangeable.
6. Which of the following terms best encompasses all of the populations of organisms living together and potentially interacting in an area?
biome
ecosystem
ecological niche
biological community
geographical community
7. The human population, from Stone Age times to the present, is best represented by
a normal distribution curve.
an exponential growth curve.
a logistic growth curve.
a bimodel distribution curve.
a random growth curve.
8. If a population exceeds the carrying capacity of the ecosystem, the most likely outcome would be
an increase in resources to meet its needs.
extinction of the species.
an eventual decline in population size.
a steady increase in population size.
maintenance of the current population size indefinitely
9. The use of specially bred strains of bacteria to clean up oil spills along beaches is an example of
ecological succession.
decomposition
bioremediation
eutrophication
primary succession
10. The two fundamental processes that govern the dynamics of an ecosystem are
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
the carbon cycle and photosynthesis
solar radiation and the carbon cycle
photosynthesis and respiration.
the nitrogen cycle and the phosphorous cycle.
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...

Quiz on Zika virus

This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
This quiz is designed to assess your  understanding about the "ZIka virus and Zika disease"Choose the best answer from the four options given. When you've finished answering as many of the questions as you can, scroll down to the bottom of the page and check your answers by clicking 'Score'. Percentage score will be displayed along with right answers.
1. The causative agent of 'Zika' fever is
mosquito
DNA virus
bacterium
RNA virus
2. 'Zika' disease is named after
zika virus that causes the disease
zika forest in Uganda
zika mosquito, the vector of the disease
zika, the scientist who first reported the disease
3. Zika virus was first identified in
rhesus monkeys
chimpanzee
gibbon
humans
4. Zika virus belongs to the family
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Filoviridae
Geminiviridae
5. The vector of Zika virus is
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
both a and b
different types of mosquito species
6. The diagnosis of Zika fever include
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral DNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral RNA
blood or body fluid test for the presence of zika viral protein
all of the above
7. Zika disease is treated using
vaccines
anti biotics
interferons
No specific treatment currently available
8. Which of the following statement is false regarding Zika disease
Zika disease is life thretening
Recently, Zika disease is reported in more than 13 countries
Zika disease is often a mild disease
Recent Zika outbreak was first reported in Brazil
9. Two major diseases that seems to have relationship with Zika diseases is
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Microcephaly in babies
Guillain-Barré Syndrome & Turners syndrome in babies
Microcephaly and Turners syndrome in babies
Turners and Downs Syndrome in babies
10. The best preventive strategy of Zika disease is to
use anti-viral drugs
protect against mosquito bites
use interferons and vaccines
All of the above
Score =
Correct answers:
Sharing is Caring ..... Please take 5 seconds to Share this Quiz. Thank you...
Related Posts Plugin for WordPress, Blogger...
 
2013-2017 Biology Multiple Choice Quizzes | Biology Quizzes - QuizBiology.com Our Partners Biology Exams 4 U, Major Differences, MCQ Biology